Originally posted by Ronson
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I was just doing some browsing trying to learn more about this and came upon this statement, here: "In 1866, the Supreme Court ruled in Ex parte Garland that the pardon power “extends to every offence known to the law, and may be exercised at any time after its commission, either before legal proceedings are taken, or during their pendency, or after conviction and judgment.” That would seem to settle it, but there's an argument against it here which is too long for me to quote (as part of it he states "this point was not argued before the Court and therefore the precedent does not cover it". I'm not at all sure of that point. The court made a ruling, didn't they? Doesn't that settle it? He does make a couple of other good arguments which seem reasonable to me).
In short, at least from what I can find, the question is still an open one. We may yet find out. If Trump and Pence do try it, given the current makeup of the SCOTUS, I suspect that the 1866 ruling would be upheld.
[Later] Looking around further as I'm interested in this, I found that it seems to be generally agreed-upon that applying for or accepting a Presidential pardon is an admission of guilt of whatever you're being pardoned for. So in general, if a President received a pre-emptive pardon (or pardoned himself), he would be admitting the offence - which could leave him open to impeachment proceedings (obviously this wouldn't apply to Trump, as he'd be out of office long before that could happen), even though he could not be otherwise punished for the crime he just admitted to.
So, for example, in the first year of his Presidency, President Smith takes some bribes for something. In the second year, he gets found out. He steps down (claiming illness) and the VP becomes President. He pardons Smith. Smith then gets better and resumes the presidency. He can't be prosecuted for taking bribes. But he could be impeached for it, despite the fact that he could not be then charged with the crime.Interesting.
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