Originally posted by Tassman
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Well no they were not "more favorable to Mary's claim to the British throne".
Mary, queen of Scots had no claim to the English throne whatsoever.
Scotland and England were separate monarchies. They were not united under one monarch until her son, James VI of Scotland became James I of England having inherited both crowns (i.e. Mary's and Elizabeth's) upon the death of Elizabeth I.
But this has little to do with the claim that, female monarchs aside, women had very little status in Western society until the comparatively recent women's movement.
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