Originally posted by oxmixmudd
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As I see it, it boils down to the difference between (1) God defining the future and (2) God knowing the future. And here is how I would illustrate the difference:
If God defined the future, (1) then the events of the timeline are what they are and could under no circumstances be changed. IOW, even if I could gain access to God's knowledge of the future, I could not change it. I do not have free will.
If God simply (2) knows the future but does not define it, then if I could gain access to God's knowledge and I have free will, I could in fact change its outcome. (e.g. God would know x, and then I would chose instead to do y)
I know of no way to test this distinction, but it illustrates the difference. If God simply knows the future but does not define it, free-will and foreknowledge/infallibility are not incompatible constructs. The exist independent of each other.
The error in logic then is assuming that God's foreknowledge necessarily implies I do not operate under free will. Given the two cases above, that is an axiom one must assume and AFAIK can't be proven.
Jim
If God defined the future, (1) then the events of the timeline are what they are and could under no circumstances be changed. IOW, even if I could gain access to God's knowledge of the future, I could not change it. I do not have free will.
If God simply (2) knows the future but does not define it, then if I could gain access to God's knowledge and I have free will, I could in fact change its outcome. (e.g. God would know x, and then I would chose instead to do y)
I know of no way to test this distinction, but it illustrates the difference. If God simply knows the future but does not define it, free-will and foreknowledge/infallibility are not incompatible constructs. The exist independent of each other.
The error in logic then is assuming that God's foreknowledge necessarily implies I do not operate under free will. Given the two cases above, that is an axiom one must assume and AFAIK can't be proven.
Jim
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