Adrift.
Please make clear why the Son of God, the only-begotten, begotten of the Father before all ages . . . begotten, not made; of one essence with the Father, being begotten does not constitute a different nature from the Father's nature. Seen they both are one being the one divine nature?
I see two natures. One makes the Son distinct from the Father.
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This forum area is primarily for persons who would identify themselves as Christians whether or not their theology is recognized within the mainstream or as orthodox though other theists may participate with moderator permission. Therefore those that would be restricted from posting in Christianity 201 due to a disagreement with the enumerated doctrines, ie the Trinity, the Creatorship of God, the virgin birth, the bodily resurrection of Christ, the atonement, the future bodily return of Christ, the future bodily resurrection of the just and the unjust, and the final judgment may freely post here on any theological subject matter. In this case "unorthodox" is used in the strict sense of a person who denies what has been declared as universal essentials of the historic Christian faith. Examples would be adherents to Oneness, Full Preterists, Unitarian Universalist Christians, Gnostics, Liberal Christianity, Christian Science to name a few.
The second purpose will be for threads on subjects, which although the thread starter has no issue with the above doctrines, the subject matter is so very outside the bounds of normative Christian doctrine totally within the leadership's discretion that it is placed here. In so doing, no judgment or offense is intended to be placed on the belief of said person in the above-doctrines. In this case "unorthodox" is used in a much looser sense of "outside the norms" - Examples of such threads would be pro-polygamy, pro-drug use, proponents of gay Christian churches, proponents of abortion.
The third purpose is for persons who wish to have input from any and all who would claim the title of Christian even on subjects that would be considered "orthodox."
The philosophy behind this area was to recognize that there are persons who would identify themselves as Christian and thus seem out of place in the Comparative Religions Forum, but yet in keeping with our committment here to certain basic core Christian doctrines. Also, it allows threads to be started by those who would want to still be identified as Christian with a particular belief that while not denying an essential is of such a nature that the discussion on that issue belongs in this section or for threads by persons who wish such a non-restricted discussion.
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostGive one citation where they mention a pre-incarnate nature is not allowed? It is agreed that the Son had a pre-incarnate divine nature, being "of one essence with the Father.".
You believe that Jesus had TWO (2) natures before his incarnation. That is not orthodox belief.
I never challenged that the incarnation became His seconded nature.
I only asserted that there was another nature which was changed in the adding the incarnation.
At any rate, the view that there was another nature other than Christ's divine nature -- a nature that you call a "temporal" nature, and that you claim existed before the incarnation (that changed at the incarnation) -- that view is unorthodox.
Not His divine nature had changed. If He only had a divine nature, I have argued then it did change being alone.
I UNDERSTAND AND ACKNOWLEDGE THAT YOU DO NOT BELIEVE THAT JESUS' DIVINE NATURE CHANGED AT THE INCARNATION.
I NEVER thought you thought that. So you can stop repeating it like I didn't realize it. Okay?
The issue that I have with your view is your belief that Jesus had TWO (2) natures before the incarnation, and that one of those natures (HIS TEMPORARY NATURE) changed at the incarnation. THAT IS UNORTHODOX. Jesus DID NOT have TWO (2) natures before his incarnation. He had ONE (1) nature before his incarnation. That one nature was divine.
And the orthodox view is that at the incarnation Jesus assumed a second nature without changing the divine nature. I went into how that is possible in post #133, but instead of engaging that reply you hand waved it away and said it didn't make sense to you.Last edited by Adrift; 03-11-2015, 02:45 PM.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostIt isn't silent, and certainly not on this matter. If it were silent we wouldn't have been having this discussion.
It also professes that Christ assumed or added his second nature at his incarnation. That is the orthodox view that you challenge.Last edited by 37818; 03-11-2015, 02:21 PM.
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostThat "orthodox" view knows nothing for or against it. It is silent.
What it does profess, and I agree with, the Son of God has two natures being both fully God and becoming fully man.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostI know you believe all of that. You also believe that Jesus had two natures before the incarnation. That isn't an orthodox view.
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostI believe in the incarnation and virgin birth. In becoming man, He did not cease being God. That He lived a holy sinless life, died on the cross for sins of all men. And was buried and rose bodily as the first immortal man. Ascending into the heaven of heavens to be our mediator until He returns at His second coming.
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Originally posted by One Bad Pig View PostThis was a favorite Arian proof-text (granted, the LXX reads "The LORD created me in the beginning of his way...").
Note however how none of the Nicene fathers argued that Proverbs 8:22 didn't speak of the Son, but rather that the Arians misinterpreted the verse because they ignored passages in the Bible which clearly showed that the Son was eternal.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostOriginally posted by 37818 View PostSo there is no common ground? I believe in one God. I believe that God is the Father, Son of God and the Holy Spirit. I believe the Father, Son of God and Holy Spirit are three different persons. I believe the Bible (66 books).
What did I say that is not true?
Quote me.Now I believe the Son of God only became human in the incarnation. That the Son of God has two natures, an eternal one, and temporal one. His human nature was a change in His temporal nature. And as the resurrected, now immortal man, He is "the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever." temporal but not temporary. He was always also eternal, and that never changed.
I believe the Son of God was always both eternal and temporal being God's temporal agent.
Not when I was explicit that was before the incarnation that the Logos always had two natures. Prior to the incarnation the Logos was nevertheless in the form of God. His eternal nature never changed. In His temporal nature, in which He as God created heaven and earth (John 1:3). Creation is a temporal act of God. He being the only begotten became human (John 1:14) is a temporal act. When He being the LORD God walked in the garden of Eden, that was a temporal act before His incarnation. He the Logos is the Uncaused Cause. Uncaused being eternal, being a cause it being temporal. Uncaused Cause is to have two natures. Eternal is a differnet nature than being temporal. He was both. Understand? His incarnation becoming human now forever, does not change this either. Since only how his temporal nature was, it only needed to change, and that is being temporal in nature, in that, is not a change. How He was temporal changed. How He was "with God" changed. That He "was God" never changed.
Give the holy scripture.
Hebrews 2:14-17 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostI had typed "what" for the word "want."
Originally posted by 37818 View Post"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." -- John 1:18.
All appeances of God is the Son.
"Then said I, Woe is me! for I am undone; because I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips: for mine eyes have seen the King, the LORD of hosts." -- Isaiah 6:5.
". . . shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed." -- Isaiah 6:10.
". . .These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him." -- John 12:41.
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Originally posted by Chrawnus View PostHuh?
Your refusal to connect Jesus with God's Wisdom seems to be connected with your belief that YHWH in the OT always denote the Son. Do you have any reasons for this claim? While I do not deny that YHWH sometimes refer to the Son, there are instances where it undeniably refers to the Father, such as Psa 2:7 and 110:1
All appeances of God is the Son.
"Then said I, Woe is me! for I am undone; because I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips: for mine eyes have seen the King, the LORD of hosts." -- Isaiah 6:5.
". . . shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed." -- Isaiah 6:10.
". . .These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him." -- John 12:41.
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostI did. You seem not to what to acknowledge it.
Originally posted by 37818 View PostThe Son of God is the Yehwah of the OT.
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Originally posted by 37818 View Post"The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old. . . ." -- Proverbs 8:22.
The LORD meaning Yehwah. The Son is Yehwah who possessed all things.
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Originally posted by 37818 View Post"Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son." -- 2 John 9.
In my view all three are the one Yehwah.
All three are the One uncaused.
Only the Son is the uncaused cause.
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostSo there is no common ground? I believe in one God. I believe that God is the Father, Son of God and the Holy Spirit. I believe the Father, Son of God and Holy Spirit are three different persons. I believe the Bible (66 books).
What did I say that is not true?
Quote me.Now I believe the Son of God only became human in the incarnation. That the Son of God has two natures, an eternal one, and temporal one. His human nature was a change in His temporal nature. And as the resurrected, now immortal man, He is "the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever." temporal but not temporary. He was always also eternal, and that never changed.
I believe the Son of God was always both eternal and temporal being God's temporal agent.
Not when I was explicit that was before the incarnation that the Logos always had two natures. Prior to the incarnation the Logos was nevertheless in the form of God. His eternal nature never changed. In His temporal nature, in which He as God created heaven and earth (John 1:3). Creation is a temporal act of God. He being the only begotten became human (John 1:14) is a temporal act. When He being the LORD God walked in the garden of Eden, that was a temporal act before His incarnation. He the Logos is the Uncaused Cause. Uncaused being eternal, being a cause it being temporal. Uncaused Cause is to have two natures. Eternal is a differnet nature than being temporal. He was both. Understand? His incarnation becoming human now forever, does not change this either. Since only how his temporal nature was, it only needed to change, and that is being temporal in nature, in that, is not a change. How He was temporal changed. How He was "with God" changed. That He "was God" never changed.
Give the holy scripture.
Hebrews 2:14-17 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
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Originally posted by Chrawnus View PostWhen are you going to deal with the fact that the New Testament writers and Jesus Himself makes the connection between Wisdom and the Son?
The Son of God is the Yehwah of the OT. That the connection is that He as God possesses her.
"But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God." -- 1 Corinthians 1:24.
"All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." -- John 1:3.
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