Originally posted by Quantum Weirdness
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On the other hand, it must be noted that _if_ there was an Aramaic original, it was lost after only one translation--ALL texts that are dependent upon Matthew (which includes a considerable body of the work of the "early fathers") use the Greek as a source. None used any putative Aramaic source.
But as I said, I'm not attempting to persuade. Simply noting the evidence.
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