Originally posted by Teallaura
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I'm just including this so I don't have to repeat it. I realize you're answering quite a few people at this point so I don't expect you to answer every post.
Jim, Jesus isn't contradicting Himself - or anyone else. Jesus isn't speaking literally - any more than when Romans referred to Caligula as Caesar they were literally assuming that Julius Caesar was returned as Caligula.
This is similar - Elijah here is almost a title instead of a name. The reference is figurative - Jesus is NOT claiming that John the Baptist is Elijah reincarnated - the passages you cite don't support that reading.
Ancients use symbolism in language a lot more than we do - probably because they didn't have TV (not being factitious - the advent of television has changed language significantly - as movies did originally). It helps them visualize and retain the information.
It's so common in ancient texts that to assume the Scripture is meant to be literal at all times crosses the border into absurdity. Modern speech doesn't approach that level of literalism, not even in highly technical writing (which will use simile in rare cases). Jesus makes extensive use of symbolism (vines, seeds, weeds, sheep, goats, pearls, vipers, swine, et al), hyperbole (pulling out eyes, cutting off limbs) and figurative references (yeast for teaching) - there's no justification for the assumption that these passages are intended literally - and in fact, one passage itself refutes the literal reading.
Only if the passages are literal - which they aren't - could the argument for contradiction be made. The correct reading is that John the Baptist assumes the mantle (role) of Elijah to fulfill the prophesy that the coming of the Lord would be heralded by a prophet.
You and Tab have lost me on this one - that 'Elijah' was to come is clearly OT prophesy so I'm unsure why he needs the reference. As Elisha assumed the mantle, so to does John the Baptist - there's no problem with this fulfillment not being either resurrection or reincarnation (and that last one is NOT Scriptural).
Jim, Jesus isn't contradicting Himself - or anyone else. Jesus isn't speaking literally - any more than when Romans referred to Caligula as Caesar they were literally assuming that Julius Caesar was returned as Caligula.
This is similar - Elijah here is almost a title instead of a name. The reference is figurative - Jesus is NOT claiming that John the Baptist is Elijah reincarnated - the passages you cite don't support that reading.
Ancients use symbolism in language a lot more than we do - probably because they didn't have TV (not being factitious - the advent of television has changed language significantly - as movies did originally). It helps them visualize and retain the information.
It's so common in ancient texts that to assume the Scripture is meant to be literal at all times crosses the border into absurdity. Modern speech doesn't approach that level of literalism, not even in highly technical writing (which will use simile in rare cases). Jesus makes extensive use of symbolism (vines, seeds, weeds, sheep, goats, pearls, vipers, swine, et al), hyperbole (pulling out eyes, cutting off limbs) and figurative references (yeast for teaching) - there's no justification for the assumption that these passages are intended literally - and in fact, one passage itself refutes the literal reading.
Only if the passages are literal - which they aren't - could the argument for contradiction be made. The correct reading is that John the Baptist assumes the mantle (role) of Elijah to fulfill the prophesy that the coming of the Lord would be heralded by a prophet.
You and Tab have lost me on this one - that 'Elijah' was to come is clearly OT prophesy so I'm unsure why he needs the reference. As Elisha assumed the mantle, so to does John the Baptist - there's no problem with this fulfillment not being either resurrection or reincarnation (and that last one is NOT Scriptural).
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