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The flaws of NT-based morality

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  • Originally posted by Starlight View Post
    People can be referring to quite a few different things when they talk about 'morality'.

    What I am thinking of here is that interpersonal interactions can be measured for their levels of benevolence or malevolence. If I kill someone because I hate them, that is an interpersonal interaction performed out of negative intentions. If I help an old lady across the street out of concern for her safety and well-being, that is an interpersonal interaction performed out of positive intentions. What characterizes the difference is the level of value placed on the other person in the interaction (be it a positive value, perhaps a strongly positive one, a negative value, perhaps strongly negative, or no value at all). All interactions performed by intentioned agents are subject to potential evaluations of this kind (i.e. the question of what intention(s) an agent performing an action has, always has a true answer).

    Humans instinctively try to evaluate the motives of others around them all the time, both because it is socially useful to understand other people, and because it has been evolutionarily hard-wired into us to detect potential threats and/or sources of assistance. So any human group or society as a whole is constantly making these sorts of assessments of its members and trying to evaluate the positive and negative intentions toward others that are behind the actions. Most socially created laws and explicit codes of conduct necessarily have this underlying them to some degree or another, as obviously any society where members are trying to harm one another constantly will quickly self-destruct, while societies that encourage mutual benevolent behavior will prosper.

    Obviously when a person uses the English word "morality" they might simply be referring to the general concept of "what is considered socially acceptable in a particular society", as Tassman often does, which naturally varies by society to a significant extent although it typically has a strong degree of overlap since the above-discussed principles ultimately always underlie it (so phrases like "do unto others as you would have them do unto you" appear in numerous societies across time and space since that is a way of saying to place a positive value on others and act with positive intentions toward them). But when I speak of a mathematical-like objective morality, I am referring to the above outlined view that all interpersonal interactions can be assessed for positive/negative intentions, and that can always be done regardless of the particular society or socially accepted code of conduct, and seems to always be a relevant and interesting thing to assess.

    As far as your particular questions A and B go, those fall outside of areas that can be assessed directly for positive/negative intentions towards others. It would be a matter of considering many, many factors and coming to some sort of widespread agreement as to the best balance. (In case it wasn't clear in my description, an act can obviously be performed with multiple intentions and so there can be plenty of gray areas where some intentions are positive and others negative, or where the actor positively values some people and negatively values others, or where they are making a judgment call in an effort to balance competing concerns with regard to the well-being of multiple people).
    The assumption that the Bible - either testament or both - is about morality kind of misses the whole point of scripture. Morality is a peripheral - though important - facet of its intent, but its primary function as not intended to address morality
    1Cor 15:34 Come to your senses as you ought and stop sinning; for I say to your shame, there are some who know not God.
    .
    ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
    Scripture before Tradition:
    but that won't prevent others from
    taking it upon themselves to deprive you
    of the right to call yourself Christian.

    ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛

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    • Originally posted by Sparko View Post
      right, because it has been the moral guide for western civilization and the basis of laws for about 4000 years now. A really poor guide
      One of the moral guides. There have been others, including imports from Roman, Greek, Arabic and Norse/Germanic societies. It might not be a coincidence that Western civilisation flourished when encountering extra-biblical influences, e.g. the Renaissance.

      Also, just because the bible has been used as a moral guide for a long time doesn't guarantee that it is a good one.
      Last edited by Roy; 08-22-2017, 05:22 AM.
      Jorge: Functional Complex Information is INFORMATION that is complex and functional.

      MM: First of all, the Bible is a fixed document.
      MM on covid-19: We're talking about an illness with a better than 99.9% rate of survival.

      seer: I believe that so called 'compassion' [for starving Palestinian kids] maybe a cover for anti Semitism, ...

      Comment


      • Originally posted by Starlight View Post
        People can be referring to quite a few different things when they talk about 'morality'.
        While I agree with your arguments here, I would hesitate to say that the various social interactions and constraints you refer to qualify as an objective morality, mainly because they are subjective both as regards the evaluation of an interaction and the assessment as to what qualifies as positive. Also, it seems to me that you are describing pragmatism rather than morality - I consider the latter as referring to how people ought to behave, rather than to what behaviours work in practice.
        Jorge: Functional Complex Information is INFORMATION that is complex and functional.

        MM: First of all, the Bible is a fixed document.
        MM on covid-19: We're talking about an illness with a better than 99.9% rate of survival.

        seer: I believe that so called 'compassion' [for starving Palestinian kids] maybe a cover for anti Semitism, ...

        Comment


        • Originally posted by Starlight View Post
          It was written for atheists to laugh at, obviously.
          Considering God has no God. Wouldn't that make God the original atheist?
          . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

          . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

          Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

          Comment


          • Originally posted by Starlight View Post
            But when I speak of a mathematical-like objective morality, I am referring to the above outlined view that all interpersonal interactions can be assessed for positive/negative intentions, and that can always be done regardless of the particular society or socially accepted code of conduct, and seems to always be a relevant and interesting thing to assess.
            But that is the problem, once you label a negative intention or act as morally bad or unacceptable you are back in the realm of the subjective. Was it morally wrong for the Hutus to slaughter the Tutsi? Well yes for the Tutsi, but not for the Hutu who consolidated power and wealth.
            Atheism is the cult of death, the death of hope. The universe is doomed, you are doomed, the only thing that remains is to await your execution...

            https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Jbnueb2OI4o&t=3s

            Comment


            • Originally posted by JimL View Post
              Moral law long precedes the bible Sparko. Better to say that moral law is the basis of the bible.
              It is the ACTUAL historical basis for most of western civilization's laws, dimwit.

              Comment


              • Originally posted by Roy View Post
                One of the moral guides. There have been others, including imports from Roman, Greek, Arabic and Norse/Germanic societies. It might not be a coincidence that Western civilisation flourished when encountering extra-biblical influences, e.g. the Renaissance.

                Also, just because the bible has been used as a moral guide for a long time doesn't guarantee that it is a good one.
                considering most of our laws over the last 2000 years have been based on it, and the morals we hold currently are also based on it, I would say it has been a pretty good moral guide. Do not murder, do not steal, don't covet, love your neighbor, help the needy and poor, don't lie.

                Comment


                • Originally posted by Sparko View Post
                  It is the ACTUAL historical basis for most of western civilization's laws, dimwit.
                  Yes, and as I said, those moral laws far outdate the bible. What do you think "thou shalt not murder" was a new moral that began with the arrival of the bible?

                  Comment


                  • Originally posted by Sparko View Post
                    considering most of our laws over the last 2000 years have been based on [the bible]
                    They haven't. The vast majority of both UK and US laws have been based on proposals drafted by parliamentarians. There are huge areas of law that have no basis in the bible whatsoever, including but not limited to traffic, copyright, commerce, insurance, juries, allowable evidence, borders, construction, advocacy and shipping. Even the original British laws were only partly based on the bible, which was added to Norse and Germanic codes that existed before Britain became Christianised.
                    Jorge: Functional Complex Information is INFORMATION that is complex and functional.

                    MM: First of all, the Bible is a fixed document.
                    MM on covid-19: We're talking about an illness with a better than 99.9% rate of survival.

                    seer: I believe that so called 'compassion' [for starving Palestinian kids] maybe a cover for anti Semitism, ...

                    Comment


                    • Originally posted by Roy View Post
                      Even the original British laws were only partly based on the bible, which was added to Norse and Germanic codes that existed before Britain became Christianised.
                      Yet a lot of those laws were grounded in scripture, especially English common law via the early work of Alfred the Great: http://www.theonomyresources.com/pdf...common-law.pdf
                      Atheism is the cult of death, the death of hope. The universe is doomed, you are doomed, the only thing that remains is to await your execution...

                      https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Jbnueb2OI4o&t=3s

                      Comment


                      • Originally posted by Roy View Post
                        They haven't. The vast majority of both UK and US laws have been based on proposals drafted by parliamentarians. There are huge areas of law that have no basis in the bible whatsoever, including but not limited to traffic, copyright, commerce, insurance, juries, allowable evidence, borders, construction, advocacy and shipping. Even the original British laws were only partly based on the bible, which was added to Norse and Germanic codes that existed before Britain became Christianised.
                        To say that these have "no basis in the bible whatsoever" is rather stretching things. Copyright law, for example, is based on "thou shalt not steal."

                        On the other hand, it's fair to say that the biblical laws governing outward (moral) conduct are not significantly different than other ancient law codes. Where the Bible stands out morally is on the inner level AFAIK (thou shalt not covet, looking at a woman with lustful intent is equivalent to adultery, etc.).
                        Veritas vos Liberabit<>< Learn Greek <>< Look here for an Orthodox Church in America<><Ancient Faith Radio
                        sigpic
                        I recommend you do not try too hard and ...research as little as possible. Such weighty things give me a headache. - Shunyadragon, Baha'i apologist

                        Comment


                        • Originally posted by JimL View Post
                          Yes, and as I said, those moral laws far outdate the bible. What do you think "thou shalt not murder" was a new moral that began with the arrival of the bible?
                          I never said it was. But you know, until recently we had no idea about what any ancient lost civilizations thought, so it really has no effect on what our society's morals were based on. They were based on the bible. And regardless, the argument was that the Bible's morals were "a poor guide" - yet if it has the same morals as all other moral guides how is it "poor?"

                          Comment


                          • Originally posted by Roy View Post
                            They haven't. The vast majority of both UK and US laws have been based on proposals drafted by parliamentarians. There are huge areas of law that have no basis in the bible whatsoever, including but not limited to traffic, copyright, commerce, insurance, juries, allowable evidence, borders, construction, advocacy and shipping. Even the original British laws were only partly based on the bible, which was added to Norse and Germanic codes that existed before Britain became Christianised.
                            Oh I forgot you are the tweb nitpicker.

                            Copyright and traffic laws.

                            Comment


                            • Originally posted by Sparko View Post
                              I never said it was. But you know, until recently we had no idea about what any ancient lost civilizations thought, so it really has no effect on what our society's morals were based on. They were based on the bible. And regardless, the argument was that the Bible's morals were "a poor guide" - yet if it has the same morals as all other moral guides how is it "poor?"
                              Would you place moral thinkers like Socrates, Plato and Aristotle in "any ancient lost civilizations"? If you do, you are factually wrong. If you don't, then you allow for the possibility that they had influence. Which, obviously they had, since even the great church farthers Augustine and Aquinas were inspired by them.

                              Comment


                              • Originally posted by Charles View Post
                                Would you place moral thinkers like Socrates, Plato and Aristotle in "any ancient lost civilizations"? If you do, you are factually wrong. If you don't, then you allow for the possibility that they had influence. Which, obviously they had, since even the great church farthers Augustine and Aquinas were inspired by them.
                                Just stay in the car, Chuck.

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