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This forum is open discussion between atheists and all theists to defend and debate their views on religion or non-religion. Please respect that this is a Christian-owned forum and refrain from gratuitous blasphemy. VERY wide leeway is given in range of expression and allowable behavior as compared to other areas of the forum, and moderation is not overly involved unless necessary. Please keep this in mind. Atheists who wish to interact with theists in a way that does not seek to undermine theistic faith may participate in the World Religions Department. Non-debate question and answers and mild and less confrontational discussions can take place in General Theistics.
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The misuse of science by William Lane Craig and othe Christian apologists.
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Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostWell, ah . . . that is most definitely the issue when you claim qualifications and discount mine by assumption and describe some models as 'impossible' and use modifiers such as absolute beginning.
Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostThan you agree with me that Craig cannot claim the support of science to justify his claim of an absolute beginning of our physical existence. that is the primary point of my argument in this first point of the thread.
But the question of whether or not there WAS an absolute beginning is different. I believe that science CAN tell us that there was an absolute beginning; it just can't tell us how this occurred.
Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostOK, but it does not justify your assertion that cosmological models cannot be falsified,
Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostAgreed, but this ... does not justify your unfortunate absolute claim that cosmological models of the origins of our universe and all possible universes cannot be falsified,
Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostThe quote does not support your inept absolute assertion concerning the nature of falsafiability of cosmological models,
(Note that a "cosmological model" is not the same a "theory of the origins of universes". Cosmological models primarily explain how the universe evolved since its beginning, not how it actually began in the first place.)
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Originally posted by Kbertsche View PostYes; IF our 13.7 billion year old universe is due to a "quantum fluctuation" then its total mass-energy must be almost exactly zero. But this is essentially a tautology. It explains nothing.
WHY would our universe be due to a quantum fluctuation? WHY would there be such an unusual quantum fluctuation, for which we have no other examples?
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Originally posted by shunyadragon View Post. . . but not based on philosophical/theological assumptions.
. . . but not based on philosophical/theological assumptions. actually probability itself is not easily falsifiable, unless there is objective scientific evidence to support it. In your epistimological argument the evidence is lacking to support falsification.My Amazon Author page: https://www.amazon.com/-/e/B0719RS8BK
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Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostI do understand very well. When the argument (mis)using science is based on philosophical/theological assumptions it is not falsifiable by scientific methods therefore circular. What you referred to is not circular, because it is indeed based on falsifiable science that the most likely cause is a natural explanation.My Amazon Author page: https://www.amazon.com/-/e/B0719RS8BK
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Originally posted by Kbertsche View PostIf you look up thread, you will see that it was YOU who first used the phrase "absolute beginning". I was merely responding to your assertions.
Not quite. I was referring to explanations of HOW an absolute beginning to our universe could have occurred. This is a metaphysical question, not a scientific question.
But the question of whether or not there WAS an absolute beginning is different. I believe that science CAN tell us that there was an absolute beginning; it just can't tell us how this occurred.
This is a philosophical assumption. Science would not assume absolute beginning of anything without falsification and objective evidence. Absolute is not a word in science vocabulary, because it would indicate proof, which you acknowledge is not the purpose of science.'
To consider science as supporting Craig's claim of support you would need to be able to falsify a theory or hypothesis that the existence of an absolute beginning of our physical existence. 'Not quite' is an insufficient waffling answer. The question needs an answer: Do you agree with me that Craig cannot claim the support of science to justify his claim of an absolute beginning of our physical existence? That is the primary point of my argument in this first point of the thread.
Based on the following statement by you. 'Not quite' is not the answer.
Originally posted by Kbertsche View PostWhy does this need to be responded to any further? I have already agreed that Craig is presenting philosophy, not science (though his philosophy is fully consistent with modern science).
But I would go further. ANY theory of absolute beginnings (whether from Craig or Hawking or anyone else) "cannot be falsified nor determined as viable by the objective methods of science". The origin of the universe cannot stem from the universe itself, it must come from outside. Therefore it is extra-natural or super-natural.
I have never asserted such nonsense. If you disagree, please present a quote to this effect.
Again, I have not asserted this. If you disagree, please present a quote to this effect.
Again, I have not made an "inept, absolute assertion" concerning "the falsifiability of cosmological models". If you disagree, please present a quote to this effect.
In other words, these theories are NOT testable or falsifiable. Thus they are NOT science; they are metaphysics. This is exactly what I've been suggesting. (Thanks for the quote; it supports my position, and contradicts yours!)
(Note that a "cosmological model" is not the same a "theory of the origins of universes".
Cosmological models primarily explain how the universe evolved since its beginning, not how it actually began in the first place.)
Last edited by shunyadragon; 08-22-2016, 10:01 PM.
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With no one providing any basis for a falsifiable theory or hypothesis for any sort of absolute beginning of our universe we will move on o the next problem, this time in math concerning 'actual infinity.' Next post will introduce the problem.
Conclusion: there is no support for Craig's Cosmological argument from science. Craig may present a philosophical/theological view that may be compared to certain selective aspects of Physics and Cosmology, but no support from the perspective of science.Last edited by shunyadragon; 08-22-2016, 10:25 PM.
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Originally posted by Rational Gaze View PostIn other words, you don't understand probability.
It may also be used in philosophical arguments in an attempt to justify ones argument, but without a basis in math for the falsifiable theory or hypothesis to apply this to science is futile.
In philosophy a word of caution from the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy.
Read further to understand the real math use of probability in science.
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Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostOriginally posted by kbettscheI have never asserted such nonsense. If you disagree, please present a quote to this effect.
Again, I have not asserted this. If you disagree, please present a quote to this effect.
Again, I have not made an "inept, absolute assertion" concerning "the falsifiability of cosmological models". If you disagree, please present a quote to this effect.
Rather, I maintain that the fringe models of "origins of universes" are neither testable nor falsifiable and thus are not science, by definition. They are speculative philosophy/metaphysics. Your own quotes support this.
You can try to muddy the water all you wish and blur the distinction between mainstream science and speculative metaphysics. But I think most folks here realize that you are doing what you typically do in apologetics threads. You try to push your own philosophical views as science, and rather than providing solid scientific support when asked, you make unsupported claims and try to belittle your opponents. It doesn't wash.
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Originally posted by Rational Gaze View PostBecause unconscious entities lack an independent will. They can't freely will to do anything. A personal entity can freely will to do things.Last edited by The Pixie; 08-23-2016, 02:46 AM.My Blog: http://oncreationism.blogspot.co.uk/
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Originally posted by Kbertsche View PostYes; IF our 13.7 billion year old universe is due to a "quantum fluctuation" then its total mass-energy must be almost exactly zero. But this is essentially a tautology. It explains nothing.
WHY would our universe be due to a quantum fluctuation? WHY would there be such an unusual quantum fluctuation, for which we have no other examples?My Blog: http://oncreationism.blogspot.co.uk/
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Originally posted by The Pixie View PostOriginally posted by kbertscheWHY would our universe be due to a quantum fluctuation? WHY would there be such an unusual quantum fluctuation, for which we have no other examples?
We see fundamental particles pop into existence for fractions of a second via quantum fluctuations. These are real particles whose presence can be detected for short periods of time. Why do we never see a small "mini-universe" with near-zero total mass-energy pop into existence? If it is believable that our 13.7 billion year old universe is the result of a quantum fluctuation, we should see small examples of similar things lasting for seconds, minutes, hours, or days. We should see detectable masses accompanied by the right amount of negative energy to make the total mass-energy of the combination equal to zero. But we don't see such things. Why not?
The claim that our 13.7 billion year old universe is the result of a quantum fluctuation seems to me to be the ultimate example of "special pleading"!
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[QUOTE=Kbertsche;359700]You have failed to provide any quotes to support your claims (that I have opposed cosmological models in general). This is, of course, because I do NOT oppose mainstream cosmological models. [quote]
Your own statements document this.
Rather, I maintain that the fringe models of "origins of universes" are neither testable nor falsifiable and thus are not science, by definition. They are speculative philosophy/metaphysics. Your own quotes support this.
Actually this is 'fringe argument' from the main point, which is whether an 'absolute beginning' of our physical existence can be supported by science as claimed by Craig, which you apparently agree based on your posts.
Can you present objective evidence that would support the falsification of a theory or hypothesis for an absolute beginning of our physical existence? This actually is the only real central meaningful point so far in this thread.
You can try to muddy the water all you wish and blur the distinction between mainstream science and speculative metaphysics. But I think most folks here realize that you are doing what you typically do in apologetics threads. You try to push your own philosophical views as science, and rather than providing solid scientific support when asked, you make unsupported claims and try to belittle your opponents. It doesn't wash.
Second it is the apologists like Craig, and of course you, that try and muddy the waters blurring the between science and speculative metaphysics. I have been proposing the clear separation, and the limits of science.
Your claim of mixing speculative metaphysics with science argument is not with me, but with scientists that develop and falsify cosmological models for the origins of universes, which you base on speculative metaphysical assumptions.
The facts are clear science at present cannot falsify either an absolute beginning nor an infinite physical existence, therefore no support for Craig's claim.Last edited by shunyadragon; 08-23-2016, 06:27 AM.
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Originally posted by The Pixie View PostThat is an interesting claim about it being "translated as "Self-Existent.""
1. Can you provide any evidence of that?
2. Do you think that in any way indicates that the cause of this universe is God? If so, how?. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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Originally posted by The Pixie View PostThe issue here is whether something that has already existed for an infinite time can spontaneously do something new.
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