Originally posted by Gary
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This forum is open discussion between atheists and all theists to defend and debate their views on religion or non-religion. Please respect that this is a Christian-owned forum and refrain from gratuitous blasphemy. VERY wide leeway is given in range of expression and allowable behavior as compared to other areas of the forum, and moderation is not overly involved unless necessary. Please keep this in mind. Atheists who wish to interact with theists in a way that does not seek to undermine theistic faith may participate in the World Religions Department. Non-debate question and answers and mild and less confrontational discussions can take place in General Theistics.
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Gary & Rhinestone's Thread on Burial and Resurrection of Christ
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Originally posted by Gary View PostYes, and those other reasons are: You don't want to accept the truth!
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Originally posted by Gary View PostAnd again we come to the issue of probabilities. For non-supernaturalists, the probability that the Sanhedrin would immediately (sunset Saturday) get Jesus' body out of Armathea's family tomb and into an unmarked criminal grave is much, much higher than your supernatural tale of a dead body exiting his sealed tomb. You on the other hand, as a supernaturalist, see just the opposite.
We will never come to an agreement on this issue until one of us adopts the other's worldview regarding the existence of an unseen, unproven, supernatural dimension.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostYou don't find it all strange that you're now relying on a scholar who refutes an argument you previously relied on?
Magness specifically states that if the Gospels are correct...so, if Pilate gave the body of Jesus to Arimathea, and if Arimathea was a disciple of Jesus, and if Arimathea buried Jesus in his family tomb, it would be very unusual to leave the body of a non-family member in Arimathea's family tomb. It would be more likely that after the Sabbath had ended (Saturday night) the body would have been moved. In addition, she does state that the Jewish burial customs as described in the Gospels are accurate IF the Gospel stories are true. She does not comment (at least in that particular article which was discussing the alleged "Jesus family tomb") on the probability of Pilate giving the body of a peasant executed for treason an honorable burial. She is simply going with the story as told.
Do you now get it?
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Originally posted by Gary View Post???
Magness specifically states that if the Gospels are correct...so, if Pilate gave the body of Jesus to Arimathea, and if Arimathea was a disciple of Jesus, and if Arimathea buried Jesus in his family tomb, it would be very unusual to leave the body of a non-family member in Arimathea's family tomb. It would be more likely that after the Sabbath had ended (Saturday night) the body would have been moved. In addition, she does state that the Jewish burial customs as described in the Gospels are accurate IF the Gospel stories are true. She does not comment (at least in that particular article which was discussing the alleged "Jesus family tomb") on the probability of Pilate giving the body of a peasant executed for treason an honorable burial. She is simply going with the story as told.
Do you now get it?
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostOf course I do. Magness' claim about the lack of prohibition on moving the body after the Sabbath doesn't effect the claims of the Gospel either way. I'd still be interested in seeing how she handles those passages from the Talmud that contradict her claim though.
I accept scholarship on all issues related to ancient historical claims. I usually accept the majority scholarly position, but when I don't such as with the Empty Tomb, I side with a respectable minority scholarly position. Can you say the same regarding this issue? Is there a sizable minority of scholars who disagree with Magness? Please provide scholars/experts in the field (who are still living) who believe that it would have been a violation of first century Jewish law to move a recently deceased body. I'm not interested in what one or two non-experts believes on this subject.Last edited by Gary; 05-24-2016, 01:48 PM.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostIt has nothing to do with being a "supernaturalist". Even non-Christians scholars like Vermes don't believe it's likely the body was moved. It would have been a non-issue to discover who moved the body in that case, and the Sanhedrin would have certainly mentioned if they had claimed the body rather than asserting the disciples stole it.
And how about quoting a scholar who is still alive?
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostLast edited by Gary; 05-24-2016, 01:47 PM.
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Magness said the bodies buried in tombs were NORMALLY left there until there were no more room for new burials, then collected into ossaries. Why would Adrift or Nick take this as meaning that Jesus's body was moved after all? Unless you refer to her suggestion that the family MIGHT have had the body moved on Saturday night to a trench?Watch your links! http://www.theologyweb.com/campus/fa...corumetiquette
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Originally posted by Gary View PostJosephus was not a contemporary of Jesus. You have no proof that this comment refers to Roman practices during the time of Jesus. In addition, Josephus specifically uses the term "malefactors" (thieves, etc.) as the persons crucified in these situations. We have no evidence that Jesus was crucified for being a "malefactor".Watch your links! http://www.theologyweb.com/campus/fa...corumetiquette
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Originally posted by DesertBerean View PostMagness said the bodies buried in tombs were NORMALLY left there until there were no more room for new burials, then collected into ossaries. Why would Adrift or Nick take this as meaning that Jesus's body was moved after all? Unless you refer to her suggestion that the family MIGHT have had the body moved on Saturday night to a trench?
Magness is going with the story as told in the Gospel of John. In this Gospel, Arimathea buries Jesus in his family tomb. Magness says this only makes sense if the reason for the burial in that particular tomb was just to get the body off the land for the Sabbath. It would have then been moved out after the Sabbath. According to Magness, it would be extremely unlikely that the body of a non-family member would be left in someone else's family tomb.
Stein gets around this dilemma by stating that the author of John is incorrect. The tomb in which Arimathea buried Jesus was the Sanhedrin criminal tomb, not Arimathea's family tomb. Adrift gets around this problem by saying that the scholar (Magness) is wrong and that his two evangelical non-scholars are correct.
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Originally posted by Gary View PostIt certainly affects the argument put forward by Nick Peters, backed up by Stein and yourself, that no first century Jew would have moved a recently deceased body. Therefore your claim that "the body was moved explanation as the reason for the empty tomb is implausible" is proven to be false. It is funny how big you are on scholarship until scholarship proves one of your key arguments holding your supernatural tale together is false.
1/29/2016
Originally posted by Adrift View PostYour analogies suck. You're the one offering the claim that should be looked at with skepticism when you say that Jews would have moved a body on the Sabbath. You are the Bigfoot Believer, not Leonhard.Originally posted by Adrift View PostNo, I'm asking you to support your claim that 2nd Temple Jews would have removed a corpse from its grave on the Sabbath. Give us an example. Jesus' own followers wouldn't even break the sabbath to finish the preparation of the body.
You're the one with the extraordinary claim. You're the one that is asking us to accept the claim that Bigfoot exists.
Originally posted by Adrift View PostNo one argued that bodies could not be removed from the grave in ancient Israel. psstein even offered a similar example in a recent post. In the 1st century, especially in Jerusalem, bodies were laid out in tombs, and once the flesh had rotted away, the bones were moved to an ossuary. It's very likely that Jesus' burial in Joseph of Arimathea's grave was a temporary situation as dictated in Mishnah Sanhedrin:
6 How do they hang him? They sink the beam into the ground, and [a piece of] wood protrudes from it, and one places his hands together, and hangs him. Rabbi Yose says, the beam leans on a wall, and they hang him the way that butchers do. And then they undo him [from the gallows] immediately. If he stayed there overnight, [the court] violates a negative commandment on his account, as it says, (Deuteronomy 21:23), "His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt surely bury him the same day; for he that is hanged is a reproach unto God...." That is to say: why has he been hanged? Because he 'blessed' [i.e. cursed] God, and God's name has become desecrated.
7 Said Rabbi Meir, when a human being is in distress, what expression does the Divine Presence use, as it were? "My head is in pain, My arm is in pain." If so, the Omnipresent feels distress over the blood of the wicked that is spilled; how much more so [does He] over the blood of the righteous. And furthermore, anyone who leaves a dead body hanging overnight transgresses a negative commandment. But if one leaves a body hanging overnight for the sake of its honor, to bring it a coffin or shroud, he does not transgress [a negative commandment]. And such a body [i.e. that of one stoned to death] would not be buried in the grave of his ancestors. Rather, two grave-sites were set for the courthouse, one for those put to death by decapitation and strangulation, and one for those put to death by stoning and burning.
8 When the flesh decomposed, they collect the bones and bury them in their proper place. And the relatives come and greet the judges and the witnesses, as if to say, we hold nothing against you, since [we know that] your verdict was just. And they would not [observe rituals of] mourn[ing], but they would grieve, since grief is only in the heart.
What did not happen is the movement of bodies on the Sabbath, nor the handling of the recently deceased outside of close family and followers since coming into contact with a corpse was considered unclean.
All of the above has already been covered in other threads. I actually mentioned the above Mishnah in the Comment Thread for The Resurrection of Jesus that you posted in. Since you're not at all interested in gaining understanding, but instead soapboxing, you can't be bothered to actually read what's being posted in these threads.
Originally posted by GaryI accept scholarship on all issues related to ancient historical claims. I usually accept the majority scholarly position, but when I don't such as with the Empty Tomb, I side with a respectable minority scholarly position.
Originally posted by GaryCan you say the same regarding this issue?
Originally posted by GaryIs there a sizable minority of scholars who disagree with Magness? Please provide scholars/experts in the field who believe that it would have been a violation of first century Jewish law to move a recently deceased body. I'm not interested in what one or two non-experts believes on this subject.
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Originally posted by Gary View PostI'm not sure I follow your point.
Magness is going with the story as told in the Gospel of John. In this Gospel, Arimathea buries Jesus in his family tomb. Magness says this only makes sense if the reason for the burial in that particular tomb was just to get the body off the land for the Sabbath. It would have then been moved out after the Sabbath. According to Magness, it would be extremely unlikely that the body of a non-family member would be left in someone else's family tomb.
Stein gets around this dilemma by stating that the author of John is incorrect. The tomb in which Arimathea buried Jesus was the Sanhedrin criminal tomb, not Arimathea's family tomb. Adrift gets around this problem by saying that the scholar (Magness) is wrong and that his two evangelical non-scholars are correct.
Since tracking your flip-flops take too much time, I'll leave it to your three to discuss this yourselves.Watch your links! http://www.theologyweb.com/campus/fa...corumetiquette
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Originally posted by Gary View Post"would have certainly" = assumption.
And how about quoting a scholar who is still alive?
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Originally posted by Gary View PostJosephus was not a contemporary of Jesus. You have no proof that this comment refers to Roman practices during the time of Jesus. In addition, Josephus specifically uses the term "malefactors" (thieves, etc.) as the persons crucified in these situations. We have no evidence that Jesus was crucified for being a "malefactor".
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