Originally posted by psstein
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b) fulfills the criterion of embarrassment,
and c) fulfills the criterion of coherence.
In addition to Acts 13:27-29 which Luke has Paul say it was "the Jews" plural, "those who live in Jerusalem and their rulers" who executed Jesus and then says "they took him down from the tree and laid him in a tomb", an early variant of John 19:38 also has "they" as in "the Jews" taking Jesus away for burial. This is also found in the Gospel of Peter 6:21 and in Justin Martyr: Dialogue 97.1 "towards evening they (the Jews) buried him". The Secret Book of James has Jesus refer to how he was "buried in the sand" meaning it was a shameful burial and mentions no tomb at all. All of these sources are attested early enough to reflect another burial tradition. https://books.google.com/books?id=DF...page&q&f=false
There is no clear independent attestation since Matthew and Luke copied Mark and John's gospel was written so late that the author likely knew of it.
Paul certainly indicates no knowledge of it. A detail which would have greatly helped his argument in 1 Cor 15.
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