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Christianity 201 Guidelines

orthodox Christians only.

Discussion on matters of general mainstream evangelical Christian theology that do not fit within Theology 201. Have some spiritual gifts ceased today? Is the KJV the only viable translation for the church today? In what sense are the books of the bible inspired and what are those books? Church government? Modern day prophets and apostles?

This forum is primarily for Christians to discuss matters of Christian doctrine, and is not the area for debate between atheists (or those opposing orthodox Christianity) and Christians. Inquiring atheists (or sincere seekers/doubters/unorthodox) seeking only Christian participation and having demonstrated a manner that does not seek to undermine the orthodox Christian faith of others are also welcome, but must seek Moderator permission first. When defining "Christian" or "orthodox" for purposes of this section, we mean persons holding to the core essentials of the historic Christian faith such as the Trinity, the Creatorship of God, the virgin birth, the bodily resurrection of Christ, the atonement, the future bodily return of Christ, the future bodily resurrection of the just and the unjust, and the final judgment. Persons not holding to these core doctrines are welcome to participate in the Comparative Religions section without restriction, in Theology 201 as regards to the nature of God and salvation with limited restrictions, and in Christology for issues surrounding the person of Christ and the Trinity. Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 forum without such restrictions.

Additionally and rarely, there may be some topics or lines of discussion that within the Moderator's discretion fall so outside the bounds of mainstream orthodox doctrine (in general Christian circles or in the TheologyWeb community) or that deny certain core values that are the Christian convictions of forum leadership that may be more appropriately placed within Unorthodox Theology 201. NO personal offense should be taken by such discretionary decision for none is intended. While inerrancy is NOT considered a requirement for posting in this section, a general respect for the Bible text and a respect for the inerrantist position of others is requested.

The Tweb rules apply here like they do everywhere at Tweb, if you haven't read them, now would be a good time.

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  • Obsidian
    replied
    I did answer. You haven't paid attention. I'm tired of repeating myself. And I never used the word "safety."

    Leave a comment:


  • phat8594
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    Yeah, I really like to make sure to have a decent percentage of heretics translating my Bible, to help balance things out.
    Yet you also said that you essentially like the 'safety' in large number of translators....so which is it?


    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    When they copy word-for-word so there is little or no room for discretion. Seriously, this is not a hard concept.
    [/quote]

    No offense, but I really don't think you understand translation. Most people who comment on translations really have 0 idea about what goes into it or how languages work.


    You say that there is little room for discretion - but there is ALWAYS room for 'discretion'. It seems to me that you would rather essentially tie the hands of the translators and keep them from having the liberty to actually translate accurately simply to adhere to the subjective idea of translating 'word' for 'word'. This only removes clarity and puts the so call 'discretion' in the hands of lay people who typically have 0 knowledge of the original languages, semantic ranges, etc -- not to mention that it does so with a less clear and readable translation.




    And you still have yet to answer: if formal equivalence is better, why would God use functional equivalence in the Bible?

    Leave a comment:


  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    Because when necessary, I compare the different versions, and look up the original languages, and research the textual variants.
    So there is safety in a larger number of translators.

    Leave a comment:


  • Obsidian
    replied
    Originally posted by Robrecht
    But how do you know they aren't choosing heretical words or words that otherwise reflect their own bias?
    Because when necessary, I compare the different versions, and look up the original languages, and research the textual variants.

    Leave a comment:


  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    Yeah, I really like to make sure to have a decent percentage of heretics translating my Bible, to help balance things out.

    When they copy word-for-word so there is little or no room for discretion. Seriously, this is not a hard concept.
    But how do you know they aren't choosing heretical words or words that otherwise reflect their own bias?

    Leave a comment:


  • Obsidian
    replied
    Originally posted by Phat
    And shouldn't this make you feel better about the translations that have been done by committees filled with scholars of varying theological backgrounds?
    Yeah, I really like to make sure to have a decent percentage of heretics translating my Bible, to help balance things out.

    Originally posted by Robrecht
    How do you know when a translator is not biased?
    When they copy word-for-word so there is little or no room for discretion. Seriously, this is not a hard concept.

    Leave a comment:


  • phat8594
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    I didn't say it's more accurate. I said it's more objective.
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    On what basis? Would you mind explaining how it is more objective? After all, what is the goal of translating?

    It seems to me that choosing to translate word for word in and of itself is based on subjective reasoning


    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    I trust some translators more than others. And the ones I tend to trust most are those who try to avoid inserting their own biases.
    And how do you know which ones to trust?

    And shouldn't this make you feel better about the translations that have been done by committees filled with scholars of varying theological backgrounds?

    Leave a comment:


  • phat8594
    replied
    Originally posted by robrecht View Post
    But if you do not trust the translators, don't you need to do that work yourself? And why would you trust your language teachers and books, for that matter?
    ^^ yeah, this

    Leave a comment:


  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    I didn't say it's more accurate. I said it's more objective.

    If you were to translate the word "ball" into Spanish, it would probably make a difference whether you were referring to a formal dance or a sphere used in a sporting event. Obviously, in that type of case a different word would need to be used. But when we're talking about Lord versus Jehovah, or save versus deliver, or other words with similar but arguable meaning, then the words should most of the time be translated the same.

    I trust some translators more than others. And the ones I tend to trust most are those who try to avoid inserting their own biases.
    How do you know when a translator is not biased?

    Leave a comment:


  • Obsidian
    replied
    Originally posted by Phat
    IOW, if formal equivalence is 'more accurate' then why would God use functional equivalence?
    I didn't say it's more accurate. I said it's more objective.

    If you did this method, then you would honestly come up with some really bad translations, not to mention theology.
    If you were to translate the word "ball" into Spanish, it would probably make a difference whether you were referring to a formal dance or a sphere used in a sporting event. Obviously, in that type of case a different word would need to be used. But when we're talking about Lord versus Jehovah, or save versus deliver, or other words with similar but arguable meaning, then the words should most of the time be translated the same.

    If you don't trust the translators then how can you trust a formal equivalent translation any more than a functional equivalent? You still need to translate the words...
    I trust some translators more than others. And the ones I tend to trust most are those who try to avoid inserting their own biases.

    Leave a comment:


  • phat8594
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    As a rule of thumb, I think that would be preferable. I'm sure it wouldn't always work.
    The problem is that you don't seem to understand 'semantic range' and how the semantic range for words do not line up from language to language. If you did this method, then you would honestly come up with some really bad translations, not to mention theology.


    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    I said that obtaining the direct meaning would be ideal. But since I don't trust the translators as much as I do the Holy Spirit, I think it's best if the translators convert the words in a relatively literal fashion, and let God teach us the exact meaning.
    If you don't trust the translators then how can you trust a formal equivalent translation any more than a functional equivalent? You still need to translate the words...

    And what I think you are missing is that words need context for meaning. IOW, words are used together in a context to give a meaning...depending on the context, the same words can mean different things.

    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    I'm not sure what you're referring to. But anything written in the Bible is written by God, so it can be trusted regardless of how non-literal it is.
    I am referring to the fact that the Bible translates using a 'functional equivalent' method. So if the Bible is written by God, and it uses functional equivalence, shouldn't that say something about how functional equivalence may be a better or more preferrable method than formal equivalence?

    IOW, if formal equivalence is 'more accurate' or better, then why would God use functional equivalence?


    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    Because that would take a great deal of work on my part. And because we are discussing English Bibles.
    And yet how else will you even begin to grasp whether or not the English Bibles are accurate at all??
    Last edited by phat8594; 03-26-2014, 03:41 PM.

    Leave a comment:


  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    Because that would take a great deal of work on my part. And because we are discussing English Bibles.
    But if you do not trust the translators, don't you need to do that work yourself? And why would you trust your language teachers and books, for that matter?

    Leave a comment:


  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
    Because that would take a great deal of work on my part. And because we are discussing English Bibles.
    I posted that question, not phat. Why would you change that?

    Leave a comment:


  • Obsidian
    replied
    Originally posted by Robrecht
    Why not just trust the Holy Spirit to inspire you with the correct understanding of the original Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek?
    Because that would take a great deal of work on my part. And because we are discussing English Bibles.

    *edited
    Last edited by Obsidian; 03-26-2014, 02:43 PM.

    Leave a comment:


  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Teallaura View Post
    It didn't fail often, that's true - but when it did the results were ... dramatic...

    Hey, maybe that explains the 'rock giants' in the new Noah movie! They got a universal translator for the Star Trek set and...

    I want to see that movie--don't spoil the ending--is it out yet?

    Leave a comment:

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