Originally posted by robrecht
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Originally posted by John Reece View Post...
Though it makes many English teachers cringe, for better or worse, English usage no longer restricts these forms to plural reference. Contemporary English commonly uses expressions like the following: "If anybody had a right to be proud of their accomplishments, it was Paul."
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Okay, off my soapbox now..."He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
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Originally posted by robrecht View PostAll the more reason to learn the original languages!"He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
My Personal Blog
My Novella blog (Current Novella Begins on 7/25/14)
Quill Sword
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Originally posted by Obsidian View PostI did answer. You haven't paid attention. I'm tired of repeating myself. And I never used the word "safety."
I'm not sure what you're referring to. But anything written in the Bible is written by God, so it can be trusted regardless of how non-literal it is
But that still leaves the question: Why would God translate with functional equivalence if formal equivalence is 'more literal' or 'more accurate'?
You just said that it can be trusted. So wouldn't that mean that functional can be trusted? After all, it seems to be God's preferred method...Last edited by phat8594; 03-27-2014, 11:44 AM.
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Originally posted by robrecht View PostAll the more reason to learn the original languages!
"Whenever I hear a pastor say 'the literal meaning of the Greek word is ______', I cringe. They are probably wrong more than 90% of the time. That is because many pastors know how to read a Greek word & look it up in a concordance or lexicon, but very few can actually read Greek sentences"
That has always been a very humbling reminder to me. Being able to look up words in a Greek lexicon or concordance doesn't make a person a Greek scholar.
And now, I too cringe when I hear a pastor say 'The Greek word literally means _____' and the definition is something not found in any of the major translations.Last edited by phat8594; 03-27-2014, 11:43 AM.
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Originally posted by robrecht View PostA theological text, when translated, obviously should result in a theological text in another language. But it should strive to reflect the theology of the author(s) and not the theology of the translator(s) and one should not presume that these are the same.
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Originally posted by John Reece View PostI can accept it, and have done so, off and on, since the publication of the NRSV ― the publication of which I had eagerly anticipated, my only English Bible theretofore from age 20 having been the RSV.
Like you, I grew up with the RSV. I've tried others, but find the NRSV generally the least unsatisfactory translation -- probably about the best one can hope for. I'm using the Common English Bible with junior high kids, with some reservations. It has more weird translations than I'd like, but not in places that are likely to affect the lessons for that age level. But with high school we use NRSV.
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Originally posted by RBerman View PostThat is indeed the challenge, including leaving ambiguous matters that were ambiguous in the original text.
I would rather understand a single letter, even a pause, in the original language of a text, than the entirety of a translation, especially with a text that attempts to speak of God.אָכֵ֕ן אַתָּ֖ה אֵ֣ל מִסְתַּתֵּ֑ר אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל מוֹשִֽׁיעַ׃
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Just as a help to anyone interested, here is a good book on the idea of 'literal' translations with regards to translation:
http://www.amazon.com/One-Bible-Many...rds=dave+brunn
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