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This is where we come to delve into the biblical text. Theology is not our foremost thought, but we realize it is something that will be dealt with in nearly every conversation. Feel free to use the original languages to make your point (meaning Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic). This is an exegetical discussion area, so please limit topics to purely biblical ones.

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Greek words assumed

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  • Greek words assumed

    In not a few sentences in the GNT, words (be they verbs, nouns, pronouns, and so forth) are assumed. The same phenomenon occurs in modern English prose, though [arguably] not as frequently as it does in Koine Greek of the NT.

    I was just reading Chapter 19 of John , and the very first sentence reads as follows:

    Τότε οὖν ἔλαβεν ὁ Πειλᾶτος τὸν Ἰησοῦν καὶ ἐμαστίγωσεν.
    Which word is implied in above ? The third person pronoun as in -- Τότε οὖν ἔλαβεν ὁ Πειλᾶτος τὸν Ἰησοῦν καὶ ἐμαστίγωσεν [αὐτὸν].

  • #2
    Here is another:

    ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ Ἰησοῦν τὸν Ναζωραῖον
    John 18:5

    Notice the clause Ἰησοῦν τὸν Ναζωραῖον in this context is in the accusative, betraying the fact that there is a verb which is not repeated but which is assumed from the preceding context. The text thus asks the reader to assume a verb like ζητέομεν. The lack of a verb here creates for a more terse sentence structure in order to maintain the tension of the narrative. Look at verse 4 (ζητεῖτε) for context on this score. So we read as follows,

    ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ, [ζητέομεν] Ἰησοῦν τὸν Ναζωραῖον

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    • #3
      Here a preposition I think is assumed such that the use [παρρησίᾳ] is idiomatic (see οὐδεὶς μέντοι παρρησίᾳ ἐλάλει περὶ, John 7:13 etc. for other such instances) :


      ἀπεκρίθη αὐτῷ Ἰησοῦς Ἐγὼ παρρησίᾳ
      John 18:20

      But the apostle also used the preposition ἐν in John 7:4 (αὐτὸς ἐν παρρησίᾳ εἶναι εἰ ) in a similar structure.

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