Originally posted by 37818
In your posts you insist that the Father, Son and Spirit are each God. You also insist that the Father is unbegotten, and emphatically demand that the Son is unbegotten. Though I don't remember you mentioning it, I assume you also hold that the Holy Spirit is unbegotten (does not proceed from the Father). As I understand it: That is Tritheism! Three unbegotten Gods!!!
What your private thoughts are is your business, but if you go public as you have here at TheologyWeb, it is not sufficent for you to believe in "three unbegotten Gods who are the one unbegotten God named YHWH"! You must be able to explain it!!!
Trinitarians believe there are three distinct hypostases (persons) who are homoousious (consubstantial). The doctrine of the homoousios explains that the Son and the Spirit are homoousios with the Father, thus each possesses theotēs (the state of being God). The Father, as the source of the "ousia" common to the three, is alone autotheos (God of himself). In regards to the Son, the homoousios is especially evident at Hebrews 1:3 & John 1:1c ("what God was/is the Word was/is" - NEB).
Trinitarian Christians profess that there are three distinct hypostases (persons). The distinctions: the Father is unbegotten, the Son is begotten of the Father and the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father alone.
Originally posted by 37818
Question: How do you explain 1 Corinthians 15:24-28. Especially verses 24 & 28 "Then comes the end, when He [Jesus] delivers the kingdom to God the Father, when He [Jesus] puts an end to all rule and all authority and power....when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him [God the Father] who put all things under Him, that God [the Father] may be all in all."
Originally posted by 37818
* "Jesus Christ is also referred to as God. John 1:1 states that He 'was God'."
John 1:1 does not state that Jesus Christ "was God" - that rendition is just another example of the KJV's inadequacy (see the original preface to the KJV which admits the inadequacy of translation). The modern, conservative experts in Greek Grammar (Wallace, Mantey, Harner etc) all agree that John 1:1c is qualitative, thus it means "what God was/is the Word was/is" (NEB) or as I prefer "the Word was as God" (cp. John 12:45; 14:6-11 etc).
* "Paul also explicitly stated "For there is one God" (1 Timothy 2:5)."
He sure did! And each time he nominated the Father as the one God = 1 Corinthians 8:6; Ephesians 4:8. Also, note that with few exceptions, if any, when A.Paul usesy the word "God" he always means "God the Father", as chapter 1 of his letters makes plain. To A.Paul Jesus is our one Lord, and the Spirit is the one Spirit.
* The author of the article gives no explanation of how the doctrine of the Trinity differs from Tritheism. eg: He could have mentioned what distinguishes the Father, the Son and the Spirit. I learnt that in infants school, when I was somewhere between 7 and 8 years old.
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