Originally posted by JimL
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Cogito ergo sum
Here in the Philosophy forum we will talk about all the "why" questions. We'll have conversations about the way in which philosophy and theology and religion interact with each other. Metaphysics, ontology, origins, truth? They're all fair game so jump right in and have some fun! But remember...play nice!
Forum Rules: Here
Here in the Philosophy forum we will talk about all the "why" questions. We'll have conversations about the way in which philosophy and theology and religion interact with each other. Metaphysics, ontology, origins, truth? They're all fair game so jump right in and have some fun! But remember...play nice!
Forum Rules: Here
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Can Atheism Account For Rationality
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Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostI think, if you pay close attention, that most theistic people differentiate "mind" from "soul." Indeed, I asked my question about the "I" because I suspect you will find many who will term this "I" as arising from the soul. Ergo the soul has a mind, and a body (while living on this earth). So the question then becomes, does the mind arise from the soul - and the body is simply a tool for its corporeal expression, or does the mind arise from the body, and there is no such thing as a soul.
I'm cure Chrawnus will chime in if I have any of that wrong.
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Originally posted by shunyadragon View PostThe laws theories and hypothesis concerning the physical nature of our universe are descriptive base don our present knowledge, but ultimately there are laws or principles that are the foundation of our physical existence sometimes called the Laws of Nature. The principle assumption of Methodological Naturalism is that our physical existence is uniform and predictable based on the assumption that these Laws of Nature exist, and science is descriptive of the Nature of our physical existence.. Every time a theory or hypothesis is proposed and tested the assumption of uniformity of the Laws of Nature are tested.
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Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostBecause the statement I was responding to was your claim about them having a separate existence.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostNow the requirement is that the characteristic be "inherent?" The original comment was just about "no characteristics in common." And "where it can be found" would seem to me to be a fairly basic characteristic of a thing.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostAgain, "primarily" and "secondarily" are suddenly being added. I simply provided characteristics "mind" and "brain" have in common. I'm not even sure you can make that case for "primary" "secondary" without first assuming mind is primary and brain is secondary. If mind is given rise to by brain, the relationship would be exactly the opposite.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostEven if that were true, aren't the categories of characteristics themselves a characteristic shared by two things? Lobsters and men both have appendages is a "shared characteristic."
I probably should have clarified that I meant inherent characteristics, by which I mean an attribute that is fundamental to the nature of the thing in question, and not an attribute that is dependent on it's relation to other things (unless how the thing relates to other things is a fundamental part of it's nature). But you are absolutely right that based on what I wrote in the initial post about common characteristics then lobster and men both having appendages would be a shared characteristic.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostYou are making an assumption here, again. If the brain gives rise to the mind (as I believe), calling it "non-sentient" is a bit of a stretch.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostChrawnus, this is somewhat akin to the other discussion I recently had about concepts and their existence. Although it takes a mind/brain to articulate/express/recognize something that deviates from the norm, if all the members of a species have vision and one member is born with a brain that does not have a proper vision center, that one individual will still deviate from the norm, even if there is no mind to express it or recognize it.
As for the concept of "error," I think I have to concede that point. Categorizations are actions of the mind. It is a value judgment. Without a sentient mind, value judgments don't exist.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostYou are one of the rare individuals that would post any form of a concession here. I raise my (coffee-filled) glass to you.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostEver had an experience in a sensory deprivation tank? There is a complete lack of light or sound, and yet this persistent feeling of the "mind" being located in the "head" persists. I would love to have a chance to communicate with someone who lacks sight and hearing. I would be willing to bet they report the same thing. As for measuring, how do you know this to be true. An EEG is a physical measurement of the activity of the brain, which is electrochemical in nature. We literally radiate electromagnetic energy as we think that can be measured. Who is to say that what we experience as "mind" is not simply this electromagnetic energy. It meets many of the criteria we would expect: it's not a "thing," it's a "force." It occupies space - and is distinct from the thing that produces it. Perhaps, any being capable of producing a significantly complex electromagnetic field experiences that as "mind."
I'm not saying this is the fact - but I'm proposing a possibility that cannot, AFAICT, be excluded. It fits the scenario quite well. It comes into being as "mind" comes into being. It disappears as mind disappears. It is produced by the electrochemical activity of the brain. It is centered in the head. How can we blithely dismiss it as a possiblity?
As for the brains electrochemical activity actually being the mind, well, I'm skeptical of that, to put it mildly. For one, one integral aspect of the mind and thoughts that electro-chemical activity seem to lack completely is intentionality. A mind can be focused on a specific subject, and thoughts are always about something, but I have a hard time seeing how electro-chemical activity can be either focused on anything (unless you equivocate between to different meanings of "focused"), or about something.
Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostOK, perhaps "not viable" was too strong. "Not real" or "not actual" would have been better. When I look at the body of evidence, that mind is a function of brain seems to me (by far) the more plausible proposition. Psychologically (and historically), there are strong inducements to believe otherwise. But when you begin to peal apart the "why do we believe in an immortal mind/soul?" I find most of them end up devolving to "wishful thinking." But then again, I found the same to be true about the notion of gods. For me, it's all part of the same picture.
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I'll be responding to multiple posts at once since I do not feel like posting several posts in a row. So here goes:
Originally posted by JimL View PostThere is no evidence of a mind distinct from the brain, we have only evidence of the physical brain and what the experience produced by one feels like. Just because it feels like you are something other than your physical self, is not evidence that you are. In other words, what you feel is not incontrovertable evidence of what is, it isn't even a valid argument in itself.
I see no reason to believe that anything in the brain and it's electro-chemical activity can be directly identified with any aspect of the mind, simply because the fundamental aspects of either differ so much from each other. For example, if someone had a complete reading of my electrochemical activity while watching a vase (just to take a random example), pointed to a specific part of it and said "this is the electro-chemical activity associated with your sensation of seeing a vase", my reaction would probably be, "That's interesting". But if they instead said "This electro-chemical activity is your sensation of seeing a vase" I would probably roll my eyes (or atleast experience the feeling one does when they want to roll their eyes, but choose not to in order to not appear disrespectful) and consider the person who uttered the statement as someone who has probably either not considered these things very thoroughly, or if they have, at least not rigorously.
Originally posted by JimL View PostThat goes back to my reply to Chrawnus, i.e. that what it feels like is not evidence of what it is. I think that perhaps part of the reason one may feel that way, i.e that they are something other than their material body, is because it's what their brain was taught to feel.
I'll have to refer back to what I wrote to JimL in this very post that I'm writing right now. It's not an "experience" of the mind being separate from the brain that leads me to believe that the mind is separate from the brain, rather it's the very fact that we even have experiences (regardless of the type) in the first place, and the very non-physical nature of these experiences (even when you experience something physical the experience itself is something intangible) that leads me to believe that the mind is something that is itself not physical, even if it were true that it arose from and/or depended on the brain for it's existence.
Again, "subjective feelings" is not the argument. Or at least not in the way you seem to think. Even if every sensation and experience you had were some sort of delusion you would still be justified in believing your mind is distinct from your brain, because it's not the content of the delusion that's important for the argument, but the difference in attributes between the sensation and experiences that is deluding you in to believing what you're sensing and experiencing is real and the attributes with the neurological activity in the brain associated with these sensations and experiences.
Not being able to answer every single problem or dilemma associated with a theory or belief does not mean that there is an "incoherency" in that theory or belief, or, at the very least, the incoherency is not reason enough to abandon belief in it. If you really believed that you would not believe in a large swath of modern scientific theories that are currently plagued with unanswered dilemmas and issues, but which are still held to despite these dilemmas and issues because they're still the best theories we currently have.
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Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostI think, if you pay close attention, that most theistic people differentiate "mind" from "soul." Indeed, I asked my question about the "I" because I suspect you will find many who will term this "I" as arising from the soul. Ergo the soul has a mind, and a body (while living on this earth). So the question then becomes, does the mind arise from the soul - and the body is simply a tool for its corporeal expression, or does the mind arise from the body, and there is no such thing as a soul.
I'm cure Chrawnus will chime in if I have any of that wrong.
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Originally posted by Chrawnus View Post
I'll have to refer back to what I wrote to JimL in this very post that I'm writing right now. It's not an "experience" of the mind being separate from the brain that leads me to believe that the mind is separate from the brain, rather it's the very fact that we even have experiences (regardless of the type) in the first place, and the very non-physical nature of these experiences (even when you experience something physical the experience itself is something intangible) that leads me to believe that the mind is something that is itself not physical, even if it were true that it arose from and/or depended on the brain for it's existence.Again, "subjective feelings" is not the argument. Or at least not in the way you seem to think. Even if every sensation and experience you had were some sort of delusion you would still be justified in believing your mind is distinct from your brain, because it's not the content of the delusion that's important for the argument, but the difference in attributes between the sensation and experiences that is deluding you in to believing what you're sensing and experiencing is real and the attributes with the neurological activity in the brain associated with these sensations and experiences.
Not being able to answer every single problem or dilemma associated with a theory or belief does not mean that there is an "incoherency" in that theory or belief, or, at the very least, the incoherency is not reason enough to abandon belief in it.If you really believed that you would not believe in a large swath of modern scientific theories that are currently plagued with unanswered dilemmas and issues, but which are still held to despite these dilemmas and issues because they're still the best theories we currently have.
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Originally posted by Tassman View Postbelieve your mind to be distinct from your brain, because it feels as though it is. But this is not to say that your feelings are necessarily accurate or reliable. This may well be a standard characteristic of relatively high intelligence common to all sentient creatures.
Originally posted by Tassman View PostThe problem is that you are unable to answer any
Of course it's grounded in existing knowledge, it's grounded in the existing knowledge that two things which do not share exactly the same attributes cannot be identical, but must be distinct from each other. What's not grounded in existing knowledge is the belief that the mind is identical to the brain, or brain activity.
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It is not a false dichotomy, you have simply chosen option two: the non-directed, non-conscious, non-rational forces of nature. And BTW Tass, the vast majority of creatures on earth survive fine without consciousness or self-awareness...Last edited by seer; 07-02-2019, 05:23 AM.Atheism is the cult of death, the death of hope. The universe is doomed, you are doomed, the only thing that remains is to await your execution...
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Jbnueb2OI4o&t=3s
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Originally posted by Chrawnus View PostAgain, this has nothing to do with "feeling" like your mind is distinct from your brain, and everything to do with the fact that the attributes that define the mind and it's contents (sensations, feelings, thoughts etc.) are wholly different from the attributes that define the physical brain and it's associated electro-chemical activity. The mind cannot be identical to the brain, or reduced down to the brain for the simple reason that simple logic dictates that if two things differ by even a single attribute they cannot be the same thing, and the mind and the brain differ with regards to several attributes, of which I've already mentioned two (intangibility vs physical/material and intentionality vs "non-intentionality".
I don't know what you're trying to achieve by arguing with them; while I find what you have to say interesting - they simply cannot comprehend it as meaningful. Its not their fault, I blame the philosophers of science, a handful of actual philosophers that push hard-core materialism as a way of "combating" religion, and universities that are not policing that part of conceptual space adequately.
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Originally posted by Zara View PostThese people may be beyond help. No really, sometimes one can become so entrenched in ones principles that one would have to deny the reality of ones own experience to remain consistent. The problem for them, is that in effect they condemn themselves to a form of conceptual hell, where they can't explore those 'subjective unverifiable feelings', even while the world's rich literature of people light years more intelligent in three different senses is there for all to see, for fear of them being mere illusions and not real. It would be tragic if it wasn't so sad.
I don't know what you're trying to achieve by arguing with them; while I find what you have to say interesting - they simply cannot comprehend it as meaningful. Its not their fault, I blame the philosophers of science, a handful of actual philosophers that push hard-core materialism as a way of "combating" religion, and universities that are not policing that part of conceptual space adequately.
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Originally posted by seer View PostAre the laws of logic absolute or not?
If not then the law of non-contradiction does not necessarily hold universally,
which makes your musing or conclusions meaningless...
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Originally posted by Chrawnus View PostTrust me, I'm not doing this for their sake.Last edited by Zara; 07-02-2019, 06:29 AM.
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Originally posted by little_monkey View Post
The law of non-contradiction - a human concept with limited applicability- does not apply to any system that is non-binary.
In what way would that make my "musing" meaningless? To realize that human concepts have limited applications does not render a "conclusion meaningless". Get real.Atheism is the cult of death, the death of hope. The universe is doomed, you are doomed, the only thing that remains is to await your execution...
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Jbnueb2OI4o&t=3s
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