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Cogito ergo sum
Here in the Philosophy forum we will talk about all the "why" questions. We'll have conversations about the way in which philosophy and theology and religion interact with each other. Metaphysics, ontology, origins, truth? They're all fair game so jump right in and have some fun! But remember...play nice!
Forum Rules: Here
Here in the Philosophy forum we will talk about all the "why" questions. We'll have conversations about the way in which philosophy and theology and religion interact with each other. Metaphysics, ontology, origins, truth? They're all fair game so jump right in and have some fun! But remember...play nice!
Forum Rules: Here
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Atheism And Moral Progress
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Originally posted by carpedm9587 View PostThe problem with all of this is that it treats "good" as if it were some intrinsic attribute that something can have. "Good" is an assessment. "Bad" is an assessment. They are value judgments. They don't exist independently - they exist in the mind of an assessor making an assessment. The statement "god is good" is meaningless without specifying "to whom" and "as measured by what?" "Good" is not a color - or weight - or any other objectively real attribute of a thing, and this definition jumps to that assumption.
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Originally posted by JimL View PostOught and ought not would not apply to an eternal god existing alone. Ought and ought not do what to whom?
Bottom line, we still sort actions into "ought" and "ought not," even in the absence of a society.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostBut is not subjective to him, it is him. He is the good. You don't talk about any of God's other essential attributes as being subjective to him, do you? It seems to me that it's just unnecessary language that adds a layer of confusion when you talk about moral goodness being subjective to God even if you do so while maintaining that the goodness is grounded in his nature.
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I'm aware it's what you think - but it's simply not supported by the conventional definitions and usage of the terms. Nor is it supported by the obvious existence of moral principles that are not related to interactions.
Originally posted by Tassman View Post"immoral" as such.
Originally posted by Tassman View PostOn what basis do you conclude that are immoral in and of themselves if one is isolated and alone. It seems to me you are assuming without evidence that there exists an objective moral standard.
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Originally posted by Jim B. View PostYes, I agree that this is how you can avoid the Euthyphro dilemma, but it would be "good" to clarify in what sense you mean the word "is." By this approach, wouldn't God also be the basis for everything, since God is the ground of Being itself?
Dr. Craig explains what he means by God is the good in this way,
https://www.reasonablefaith.org/podc...rt-10#_ftnref2Last edited by Adrift; 09-17-2019, 03:35 PM.
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Originally posted by seer View PostWell since I believe that God is also immutably rational, the very laws of logic are sourced in His being. You seem to be suggesting that there are logical or moral truths that are independent of God.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostTo be clear, my view is that it would neither be subjective or objective (from God's point of view). If subjective, then God takes the horn of Euthyphro's dilemma that suggests that he wills the good. If objective, then God takes the horn of the Euthyrpho dilemma that suggests that the good is something that God recognizes beyond himself, and/or that he conforms himself to. I agree with Dr. Craig that God neither merely wills the good, nor that the good is something he recognizes outside of himself, but that by being the greatest conceivable being, a being of pure perfection, and creator of all that there ever was, is, and will be, is the good. His commands are based upon his very nature. From OUR perspective, then, the good is objective because God, by his very nature, is the basis of the "good."
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostGreat video! I especially appreciate the exercise of establishing epistemological duties in reasoned discourse, and I find this one of the greatest weaknesses of carpe's epistemology. carpe seems to want to argue that there are ways one can progressively reason out of wrongly held views, but in order to do so he implicitly holds right reason as an objective standard to progress towards.
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Originally posted by JimL View PostAnd my point is that a moral nature makes no sense for a being existing eternally alone doing nothing. That would explain the amoral nature of the universe itself. Morality is a human concept which applies only to social communities.Last edited by seer; 09-17-2019, 09:50 AM.
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Originally posted by seer View PostJim, the point is God would have a particular moral nature even if there were no sentient beings to interact with. Our existence or non-existence does not change that.
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Originally posted by JimL View PostOught and ought not would not apply to an eternal god existing alone. Ought and ought not do what to whom?
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Originally posted by seer View PostI have actually read Moreland, and watched many of Craig's debates. Yes God is the good - I fully agree. He has a particular kind of nature, but we also have a particular kind of nature. Both being objective - don't you agree?
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Originally posted by seer View PostAs Carp rightly said morality is not about interpersonal relationships, it is about ought and ought not. It could be that God did not display His moral character until He created sentient beings, but that character was always there, and unchangeable.
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