Originally posted by seer
View Post
. . . or Divine law in your case, whether is exists or not. And that epistemology has to do with how or if or when we come to know or understand said law. And my argument has nothing to do with how we come to know Divine Law or if we do, but what logically follows if such a moral standard does not exist. And what follows is that there are no right answers to any moral question, all moral reasoning is meaningless and absurd. You proved this by reducing moral questions to personal preference, like the preference for brown rice.
So God may actually favor slavery? How could you know that He doesn't actually favor slavery if His ultimate Divine law is unknowable?
Even Thomas Aquinas supports this:
Comment