Originally posted by Jichard
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If you think this is the area where you tell everyone you are sorry for eating their lunch out of the fridge, it probably isn't the place for you
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This forum is open discussion between atheists and all theists to defend and debate their views on religion or non-religion. Please respect that this is a Christian-owned forum and refrain from gratuitous blasphemy. VERY wide leeway is given in range of expression and allowable behavior as compared to other areas of the forum, and moderation is not overly involved unless necessary. Please keep this in mind. Atheists who wish to interact with theists in a way that does not seek to undermine theistic faith may participate in the World Religions Department. Non-debate question and answers and mild and less confrontational discussions can take place in General Theistics.
Forum Rules: Here
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Why does God saying something make it objective?
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Originally posted by JimL View PostGod may say something that is true, but it isn't objectively true just because God says it.
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There's been some recent comments suggesting that the notion of "subjective" cannot be applied to God's mind. This can often involve limiting the notion of "subjective" to humans. For example:
Originally posted by Cornell View PostHow in the world are you defining 'subjective'?
I define it as mind-dependent with respect to humans
But since some people might not trust Wikipedia on this, I thought I might provide some other resources on this, to clear up on any confusion on when "subjective" includes dependency on God's mental states:
it may besomething has surely gone wrong if even facts in Bishop Berkeley's globally idealistic world count as objectiveTo accept the divine-command theory is to accept a kind of grand subjectivism, where the subject creating the values is God [emphasis added]. God may be all knowing and powerful, but if there are no principles to appeal to in justifying his commands, then they are arbitrary and nonbinding (96).
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Originally posted by Doug Shaver View PostI agree that his saying so would not make it so. But if I correctly understand what Christians say about God, he could never say so unless it actually was so. When I say "If God says X, then X is true," I am affirming a logical relationship, not a cause-and-effect relationship.Last edited by JimL; 08-29-2015, 09:13 PM.
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My apologies. I promised a response and didn't get around to it. I haven't kept up with the thread so I am just going to apologize and bow out."He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
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Originally posted by Teallaura View PostQuick point - qualitative difference. I read your responses the first time through - there is no qualitative difference for an omniscient, . . .
This source also describes the possibility that some may propose a 'moral theory attribute to God, but this remains a nebulous concept has weaknesses and inconsistences as to what these morals consist of and how they apply. Other than being from God, these morals have not been consistently defined. Just simply claiming 'objective morality' is from God is not adequate to be to survive scrutiny as what is 'objective.'
God's spiritual Laws in the scripture come closest to what may be called 'objective morality,' but the problem of applicability and the diversity of what different people interpret God's laws and which apply and when they apply.
. . . and according to your own response, God does create objective laws (gravity, et al).
The use of objective and subjective in this context has no constructive meaning in communicating what people believe concerning morals and ethics and the reality of the social and cultural nature of our societies, because they are human constructs.
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