Hedrick, have you also considered the interpretation of a subjective genitive in the meaning of the pistis christou? I think this allows a more Jewish (and less anachronistic Lutheran) understanding of Paul.
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While this area is for the discussion of these doctrines within historic Christianity, all theists interested in discussing these areas within the presuppositions of and respect for the Christian framework are welcome to participate here. This is not the area for debate between nontheists and theists, additionally, there may be some topics that within the Moderator's discretion fall so outside the bounds of mainstream evangelical doctrine that may be more appropriately placed within Comparative Religions 101 Nontheists seeking only theistic participation only in a manner that does not seek to undermine the faith of others are also welcome - but we ask that Moderator approval be obtained beforehand.
Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 or General Theistics 101 forum without such restrictions. Theists who wish to discuss these issues outside the parameters of orthodox Christian doctrine are invited to Unorthodox Theology 201.
Remember, our forum rules apply here as well. If you haven't read them now would be a good time.
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Aspects of Atonement: What Did Jesus' Death on the Tree Accomplish?
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Originally posted by robrecht View PostHedrick, have you also considered the interpretation of a subjective genitive in the meaning of the pistis christou? I think this allows a more Jewish (and less anachronistic Lutheran) understanding of Paul.
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Originally posted by robrecht View PostHedrick, have you also considered the interpretation of a subjective genitive in the meaning of the pistis christou? I think this allows a more Jewish (and less anachronistic Lutheran) understanding of Paul.
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Originally posted by RBerman View PostAbraham believed Christ, in shadows.
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Originally posted by hedrick View PostI know it's a possibility. The context seems more in favor of faith in Christ. I don't doubt that Abraham was justified by a faith that wasn't explicitly in Christ. However most (though arguably not all) of Romans, and 3:24 in particular, is about faith in Christ. I don't think 3:22 alone would change the picture much.
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Originally posted by hedrick View PostI know it's a possibility. The context seems more in favor of faith in Christ. I don't doubt that Abraham was justified by a faith that wasn't explicitly in Christ.
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Originally posted by dacristoy View PostJustified, to be declared right with God. Salvation is not the issue. Right with God today, wrong tomorrow, This is why Abraham's faith was imputed to him as righteousness; which will earn rewards in heaven, not salvation. Only faith that is through Christ has the power to save...
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Originally posted by Paprika View PostWhat we have in Romans 4 is that "Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness". It isn't Christ's faithfulness or righteousness that is imputed, but Abraham's own faith that God would fufill his promises that was counted as righteousness.
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Originally posted by Paprika View PostSo are you saying that Abraham isn't saved or won't be saved?
http://www.biblestudytools.com/dicti...justification/
Accordingly it is not surprising that salvation is often viewed in legal terms. The basic question in all religion is, "How can sinful people be just (i.e., be justified) before the holy God?" Justification is a legal term with a meaning like "acquittal"; in religion it points to the process whereby a person is declared to be right before God. That person should be an upright and good person, but justification does not point to qualities like these. That is rather the content of sanctification.
Justification points to the acquittal of one who is tried before God. In both the Old Testament and the New the question receives a good deal of attention and in both it is clear that people cannot bring about their justification by their own efforts. The legal force of the terminology is clear when Job exclaims, "Now that I have prepared my case, I know I will be vindicated" ( Job 13:18 ).
We are saved by grace, not of works lest any man should boast...
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Originally posted by RBerman View PostI would not dispute that. My point was that even if the specific phrase pistis Christou was translated "the faith of Christ" rather than "faith in Christ" in Romans 3, the surrounding text still affirms the point you (and Luther) were making about the role of personal faith in justification.
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Originally posted by Paprika View PostI understand that Luther argues that personal faith results in imputed righteousness, and would not agree with him on that point.
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Originally posted by Paprika View PostI have a question for you: what is the dikaiosune theou and how is it manifested through pistis christou?
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Originally posted by RBerman View PostEven then, Romans 3 would still be talking about the benefits of "the faith of Christ" for all who believe, so Luther's key insight would still apply.אָכֵ֕ן אַתָּ֖ה אֵ֣ל מִסְתַּתֵּ֑ר אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל מוֹשִֽׁיעַ׃
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