Genesis 17:1-14 has God making an *everlasting* covenant with Abraham and his physical descendants. God commands circumcision to be the physical sign of this everlasting covenant.
It seems that under the new covenant, the Apostle's render at best *optional* the physical rite of circumcision for both Jews and Gentiles. How can this be when God *commanded* the physical rite of circumcision to be a sign of an *everlasting* covenant?
It seems that under the new covenant, the Apostle's render at best *optional* the physical rite of circumcision for both Jews and Gentiles. How can this be when God *commanded* the physical rite of circumcision to be a sign of an *everlasting* covenant?
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