Originally posted by lee_merrill
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Yes, you can show me.
Me: What is the antecedent / post-cedent of ὃ in 1 John 1:1 ?
You: "ἡ ζωὴ", I would say.
How is it that the Holy Spirit is deemed a person, then, in John 14-16, without any incarnation?
Blessings,
Lee
Blessings,
Lee
Your posts in this thread (especially as pertains the grammar of the various NT passages which you try to enlist) are fact free, self contradictory and incoherent. You are unfortunately pretending a discussion of the grammar of these NT verses with me rather than actually discussing them. It's time to give up the charade. You do not know what you are talking about.
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