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This is where we come to delve into the biblical text. Theology is not our foremost thought, but we realize it is something that will be dealt with in nearly every conversation. Feel free to use the original languages to make your point (meaning Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic). This is an exegetical discussion area, so please limit topics to purely biblical ones.

This is not the section for debates between theists and atheists. While a theistic viewpoint is not required for discussion in this area, discussion does presuppose a respect for the integrity of the Biblical text (or the willingness to accept such a presupposition for discussion purposes) and a respect for the integrity of the faith of others and a lack of an agenda to undermine the faith of others.

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Literal translations of Biblical names?

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  • Cerebrum123
    replied
    Originally posted by robrecht View Post
    The only instances in the earliest Hebrew consonantal text of Genesis where 'adam is unambiguously used as a name is in Genesis 4,25 and 5,3-5. On the basis of those texts, you could make a case that it was originally understood to be the name of a single man. Personally, I would not assume that the first man was named Adam, 'though the author(s) of these verses did, and the tendency of later translators and Masoretes tended to variously understand the earlier text of Genesis in this way, at the risk of obscuring the deep significance of the collective and symbolic force of אַ֔יִן)] [2,20* 3,17.21 (w לְ
    It's not just "those texts" in Genesis that lead to Adam being the name of the first man, it's the context of the whole Bible. The Adam in Genesis 5:1 is the same one who's wife was Eve, who was to be the "mother of all the living", meaning that all mankind would be descended from her from then on. Then you have 1 Chronicles writing up the history back to the beginning, and starts with Adam. Then Luke does his genealogy leading back to "Adam, who was the son of God". Romans 5:12-14 that teaches that death came into the world through Adam's sin. 1 Corinthians 15 comparing the first and last Adam, and 1 Timothy 2:13-14 comparing Adam and Eve, and mentioning that Adam was formed first. All of these together make it unmistakably clear that Adam was the very first human, but you are so obsessed with a "deep significance" that you are throwing out the crystal clear meaning that actually is there for all to see.

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  • Sparko
    replied
    Originally posted by robrecht View Post
    I would never disagree with God, unless he wanted me to, but I'm not sure which hagiographer you are referring to here?
    I think he is referring to Luke's genealogy maybe?

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  • Sparko
    replied
    Originally posted by hansgeorg View Post
    Hebrew WAS around. It is the language God spoke with Adam in all probability (Aramaic might be a candidate too).
    really hans, you should not be contributing to threads in biblical languages. You have absolutely no knowledge in the area. I trust robrecht's answers and comments. He is a first class biblical language scholar. You could learn a lot just from reading his posts.

    Remember the old saying, better to be silent and seem a fool, than to open your mouth and remove all doubt.

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  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by hansgeorg View Post
    In other words, you feel disagreeing with a hagiographer and with God is good enough for you?
    I would never disagree with God, unless he wanted me to, but I'm not sure which hagiographer you are referring to here?

    Leave a comment:


  • hansgeorg
    replied
    Originally posted by robrecht View Post
    Personally, I would not assume that the first man was named Adam, 'though the author(s) of these verses did,
    In other words, you feel disagreeing with a hagiographer and with God is good enough for you?

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  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Sparko View Post
    That's interesting.

    The question then is:

    Were they named that because of the meanings? Or did the meanings come from the names later?

    For example, did Adam come to mean "mankind" because Adam was the first man? Considering Hebrew wasn't around then probably, I would think so.
    The only instances in the earliest Hebrew consonantal text of Genesis where 'adam is unambiguously used as a name is in Genesis 4,25 and 5,3-5. On the basis of those texts, you could make a case that it was originally understood to be the name of a single man. Personally, I would not assume that the first man was named Adam, 'though the author(s) of these verses did, and the tendency of later translators and Masoretes tended to variously understand the earlier text of Genesis in this way, at the risk of obscuring the deep significance of the collective and symbolic force of אַ֔יִן)] [2,20* 3,17.21 (w לְ
    Last edited by robrecht; 01-24-2017, 08:34 AM.

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  • hansgeorg
    replied
    Originally posted by Sparko View Post
    Considering Hebrew wasn't around then probably, I would think so.
    Hebrew WAS around. It is the language God spoke with Adam in all probability (Aramaic might be a candidate too).

    Leave a comment:


  • Sparko
    replied
    Originally posted by robrecht View Post
    Adam (אָדָם, 'adam): Mankind, humanity, sometimes of an individual male, reddish (perhaps like clay). Surprisingly, unlike almost everything else of significance in the creation narrative, is not named when created on the sixth day, or when he is formed from the earth in Genesis Chapter 2. The actual naming of does not occur until Gen 5,2, where, like in Gen 1,26, 'adam'adam is closely related to the word 'adamah, which means 'ground', 'earth' in the sense of dirt (not the planet). Mankind comes from the earth and returns to the earth (Gen 2,19). The individual man whom we today call Adam, is never actually given a name in the Hebrew Bible.

    Eve (חַוָּה, chawah): Unlike Adam, who is never given a name, Eve is named twice. At first the man rather crudely named her merely 'Woman' (Gen 2,25), but later after they are spared from immediate death on account of their disobedience, he gives her a true name (3,20), an ancient form of the word for 'life'. It can also mean 'village', and to this day, the women are the true center of all village life. The men go off and hunt and gather, make war, drink and carouse, but the women make sure everything is taken care of properly back home in the village.

    Cain (קַיִן, qayin): In Gen 4,1 the biblical author makes a word-play on the name Cain (qayin) and the verb qanah (to acquire, buy, create, make) when Eve says she has acquired/made a man (with Yahweh). Qayin could be a (copper) 'spear', or in Aramaic a (copper) smith, and it may be related to the Kenite tribe (in Hebrew spelled with a Q) of Moses' father-in-law'. One might also think of Cain as evoking the Canaanites, but this is a different word in Hebrew, spelled with a K rather than a Q and signifying traders, merchants. The word 'Cain' is closely related to qiynah, which is a a funeral dirge, which is also evocative of Cain's role as the first murderer.

    Abel (הֶבֶל, hevel): The meaning of the 'hevel' is 'mist' or 'fog', as he too like the fog disappears quickly from the scene, leaving no progeny. It is the same word that Qoheleth (Ecclesiastes) uses in the theme of his book: Vanity of vanities, all is vanity, says Qoheleth. One might also say, Fog of fog, all is fog. Or, what is the ultimate meaning of our short life, if we all die so soon like Abel?
    That's interesting.

    The question then is:

    Were they named that because of the meanings? Or did the meanings come from the names later?

    For example, did Adam come to mean "mankind" because Adam was the first man? Considering Hebrew wasn't around then probably, I would think so.

    Leave a comment:


  • robrecht
    replied
    Originally posted by Calminian View Post
    Could someone offer possible literal translations for Biblical names such as:

    Adam
    Eve
    Cain
    Abel

    I've been trying to get a grasp on how the original Hebrew speakers would have heard certain names and words. Today, most english names have roots in other languages and we rarely know what they mean (unless we look them up). But this was different in early history, correct? I'd be curious how certain names would have been heard?

    For instance, Eve is said to have named Cain based on him being an acquisition. Cain is a transliteration, but how would it be rendered literally? The only example I can think of where names are not transliterations is Native American names such as Sitting Bull, Crazy Horse, Standing Bear, etc. In those cases they are translated literally. Is this similar to how original Hebrew speakers heard names?
    Adam (אָדָם, 'adam): Mankind, humanity, sometimes of an individual male, reddish (perhaps like clay). Surprisingly, unlike almost everything else of significance in the creation narrative, is not named when created on the sixth day, or when he is formed from the earth in Genesis Chapter 2. The actual naming of does not occur until Gen 5,2, where, like in Gen 1,26, 'adam'adam is closely related to the word 'adamah, which means 'ground', 'earth' in the sense of dirt (not the planet). Mankind comes from the earth and returns to the earth (Gen 2,19). The individual man whom we today call Adam, is never actually given a name in the Hebrew Bible.

    Eve (חַוָּה, chawah): Unlike Adam, who is never given a name, Eve is named twice. At first the man rather crudely named her merely 'Woman' (Gen 2,25), but later after they are spared from immediate death on account of their disobedience, he gives her a true name (3,20), an ancient form of the word for 'life'. It can also mean 'village', and to this day, the women are the true center of all village life. The men go off and hunt and gather, make war, drink and carouse, but the women make sure everything is taken care of properly back home in the village.

    Cain (קַיִן, qayin): In Gen 4,1 the biblical author makes a word-play on the name Cain (qayin) and the verb qanah (to acquire, buy, create, make) when Eve says she has acquired/made a man (with Yahweh). Qayin could be a (copper) 'spear', or in Aramaic a (copper) smith, and it may be related to the Kenite tribe (in Hebrew spelled with a Q) of Moses' father-in-law'. One might also think of Cain as evoking the Canaanites, but this is a different word in Hebrew, spelled with a K rather than a Q and signifying traders, merchants. The word 'Cain' is closely related to qiynah, which is a a funeral dirge, which is also evocative of Cain's role as the first murderer.

    Abel (הֶבֶל, hevel): The meaning of the 'hevel' is 'mist' or 'fog', as he too like the fog disappears quickly from the scene, leaving no progeny. It is the same word that Qoheleth (Ecclesiastes) uses in the theme of his book: Vanity of vanities, all is vanity, says Qoheleth. One might also say, Fog of fog, all is fog. Or, what is the ultimate meaning of our short life, if we all die so soon like Abel?
    Last edited by robrecht; 01-24-2017, 06:46 AM.

    Leave a comment:


  • hansgeorg
    replied
    I would think so, yes.

    Abel I was recently seing as meaning "vanity", but I am not a Hebraist myself.

    Leave a comment:


  • Calminian
    started a topic Literal translations of Biblical names?

    Literal translations of Biblical names?

    Could someone offer possible literal translations for Biblical names such as:

    Adam
    Eve
    Cain
    Abel

    I've been trying to get a grasp on how the original Hebrew speakers would have heard certain names and words. Today, most english names have roots in other languages and we rarely know what they mean (unless we look them up). But this was different in early history, correct? I'd be curious how certain names would have been heard?

    For instance, Eve is said to have named Cain based on him being an acquisition. Cain is a transliteration, but how would it be rendered literally? The only example I can think of where names are not transliterations is Native American names such as Sitting Bull, Crazy Horse, Standing Bear, etc. In those cases they are translated literally. Is this similar to how original Hebrew speakers heard names?

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