Originally posted by Mountain Man
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And what about:
1 Corinthians 6:9-10, "Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."
1 Corinthians 6:9-10, "Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."
Or is their reading of scripture conveniently inconsistent? On what basis do they pluck a single offense out of long lists of sins in the Old and New Testaments and decide, "Oh, I'm sure God really didn't mean that one." Or is the process entirely arbitrary?
Sorry, but there is no cultural component such as for commands that a woman cover her head that will allow you to claim that homosexually is only prohibited in a certain cultural context.
An obvious example would be that the type of homosexuality dominant in Roman culture was pederasty. Today that's illegal, and the form of homosexuality allowed in our culture is between consenting adults only. So a lot of Christians approach the topic by saying "of course Paul objected to the pederasty of his time! Pederasty's wrong! But Paul didn't have in mind the idea of monogamous relationships between consenting adults like we have in our culture because they weren't much of a thing in his time, so his condemnation of homosexuality was cultural."
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