Originally posted by carpedm9587
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Without incidence, there's no measure of voter fraud. Conclusions based on those numbers are unwarranted. It makes no difference that you need to use higher or lower numbers to get a particular result when the numbers you are starting from are SKEWED. Using conviction by itself skews the numbers - only a moron would attempt weighting with that basis. It's just foolishness to draw conclusions from bad methodology.
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