Originally posted by tabibito
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why would the obsolete form be introduced for liturgical purposes?
The claim is made that sections of the Old Testament (and possibly the entire Pentateuch) were written in Paleo-Hebrew, then transcribed to Biblical Hebrew during the exile. Which is to say, the Old Testament substantially existed prior to the exile, and after commencement of the exile redacted and edited. The claim is supported by the continuing practice of using Paleo-Hebrew for parts of the scripture after the exile. I have not been able to find any authoritative source contesting the claim. The evidence that the scriptures were in fact put to writing before the exile though scant, in the absence of any contrary claim, makes it reasonable to assume that at least some of the scriptures did in fact exist in written form before the exile.
The only evidence of parts of the Pentateuch and Psalms, and the themes are found in Ugarit, Canaanite and Babylonian texts. Also many of the Psalms portrays a Ugarit polytheistic theology. You inadequately responded to showmeproof concerning your reference to the council of Gods as human judges. The translation is specific 'gods' sometimes translated in different Bibles as 'Divine Beings,' but this is a hedge, because the actual word used refers to 'gods,' and fits the context of other references in Psalms. As showmeproof indicated in the other thread you need to do a little homework on the 'council of Gods' referred to in Psalms. Hint it does not refer to human judges.
There never was a trade tongue that didn't. Relevance?
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