Originally posted by Same Hakeem
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Commentary Thread: Is the Bible Inspired by God
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Originally posted by Cerebrum123 View PostNo, it's not. I don't share your view of inspiration. Are you going to admit the Quran is not inspired since it doesn't pass your own test?
You admitting that the Bible has error means that the Bible is not inspired as God cannot inspire false information.
I am happy to examine the Quran in this regrad in a separate debate.
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Originally posted by Same Hakeem View PostYou admitting that the Bible has error means that the Bible is not inspired as God cannot inspire false information.
I am happy to examine the Quran in this regrad in a separate debate.
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Originally posted by Same Hakeem View Post37818, my offer is clear that the Bible is not the word of God in light of the following contradiction in the Bible; 2 Kings 8:26 says "Ahzaiah was 22 when he began to rule" while 2 Chronicles 22:2 says ""Ahzaiah was 42 when he began to rule". I am sure this is not what God inspired because 42 and 22 are not same unless the reader is crazy.. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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Originally posted by Same Hakeem View PostThis contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) proves that the Bible is not inspired.Last edited by 37818; 06-12-2018, 03:58 PM.. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostHow does that copyest error prove the original was in error?
The facts remains that such contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) proves that the Bible today is not inspired fully by God.
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Originally posted by Same Hakeem View PostSaying such contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) is the result of copyist error lacks evidence due to the two established facts that (1) the original manuscripts are not available and (2) not two of the available copies of copies of the Bible are identical.
The facts remains that such contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) proves that the Bible today is not inspired fully by God.. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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You saying "Three facts: 1) Copies come from originals" is not a fact because the originals are lost.
Another contradition of doctrinal nature is found between Matthew 5:8 (pure hearted will see God) and 1 Timothy 6:16 (no one can see God).
Matthew 5:8 says "blessed those who are pure in heart for they shall God" ; however, " no one can see God"
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You saying "Three facts: 1) Copies come from originals" is not a fact because the originals are lost.
Another contradition of doctrinal nature is found between Matthew 5:8 (pure hearted will see God) and 1 Timothy 6:16 (no one can see God).
Matthew 5:8 says "blessed those who are pure in heart for they shall see God" ; however, " no one can see God"
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Originally posted by Same Hakeem View PostYou saying "Three facts: 1) Copies come from originals" is not a fact because the originals are lost.
Another contradition of doctrinal nature is found between Matthew 5:8 (pure hearted will see God) and 1 Timothy 6:16 (no one can see God).
Matthew 5:8 says "blessed those who are pure in heart for they shall God" ; however, " no one can see God"
Original document > copy > copy from copy > copy from copy > > > [original long gone] copy from copy . . . many many copies.
Those many copies came from an original.
Now seeing the invisible. When what is actually invisible is seen in some way, what is actually invisible remans actually invisible. Space, like God is invisible. And like God is omnipresent. Can you see space? Did not the invisible God make Himself visible to the prophet Moses as a flame in a burning bush?. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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1. It is a claim that "Those many copies came from an original" because these originals are lost so your claim cannot be proven true.
2. Not two of these copies are identical. The earlier the copies, the greater the differences.
3. "Did not the invisible God make Himself visible to the prophet Moses as a flame in a burning bush?" is yes but;
A) Matthew 5:8 says specifically "pure hearted peaople WILL SEE GOD" whereas 1 Timothy 6:16 says "one CANNOT SEE GOD"
B) In both of these verses, the word "see" is used only. No use of the word "appear" in these verses.
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Originally posted by Same Hakeem View Post1. It is a claim that "Those many copies came from an original" because these originals are lost so your claim cannot be proven true.
2. Not two of these copies are identical. The earlier the copies, the greater the differences.
3. "Did not the invisible God make Himself visible to the prophet Moses as a flame in a burning bush?" is yes but;
A) Matthew 5:8 says specifically "pure hearted peaople WILL SEE GOD" whereas 1 Timothy 6:16 says "one CANNOT SEE GOD"
B) In both of these verses, the word "see" is used only. No use of the word "appear" in these verses.
So how does one become holy before God? (Hebrews 12:14.). . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostSo you think. The Quran never had an original written document.
You got this wrong too.
A number of issues here. For one thing, one cannot see what does not appear. And secondly, it says the "pure in heart." For which no one would see God. (Jeremiah 17:9.)
So how does one become holy before God? (Hebrews 12:14.)
1. On the Quran, I am happy to debate you on the Quran. But i am here only to discuss the Bible.
2. It is true that the earlier the manuscripts the greater the differences.
Also, the greater the number of manuscripts copies, the more differences we have. To this effect, "the multiplicity of manuscripts produces a corresponding number of variant readings, for the more manuscripts that are copied the greater will be the number of copyists' errors.
It goes on to say "The gross number of variants increases with every new manuscript discovery"
Finally it says " To date there are over 200,000 known variants and this figure will no doubt increase in the future as more manuscripts are discovered"
The quotes are from "A General Introduction to the Bible by Geisler and Nix"
3. On the contradition between Matthew 5:8 and 1 Timothy 6:16, saying "one cannot see what does not appear. And secondly, it says the "pure in heart". For which no one would see God. (Jeremiah 17:9.)" still does NOT solve the contradition because those with pure heart will SEE GOD ,but 1 Timothy 6:16 says "one CANNOT SEE God." Please the phrase " cannot see" means it is not possible to see God.
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Originally posted by Same Hakeem View PostPlease let me correct you;
1. On the Quran, I am happy to debate you on the Quran. But i am here only to discuss the Bible.
2. It is true that the earlier the manuscripts the greater the differences.
Also, the greater the number of manuscripts copies, the more differences we have. To this effect, "the multiplicity of manuscripts produces a corresponding number of variant readings, for the more manuscripts that are copied the greater will be the number of copyists' errors.
It goes on to say "The gross number of variants increases with every new manuscript discovery"
Finally it says " To date there are over 200,000 known variants and this figure will no doubt increase in the future as more manuscripts are discovered"
The quotes are from "A General Introduction to the Bible by Geisler and Nix"
3. On the contradition between Matthew 5:8 and 1 Timothy 6:16, saying "one cannot see what does not appear. And secondly, it says the "pure in heart". For which no one would see God. (Jeremiah 17:9.)" still does NOT solve the contradition because those with pure heart will SEE GOD ,but 1 Timothy 6:16 says "one CANNOT SEE God." Please the phrase " cannot see" means it is not possible to see God.. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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