Originally posted by seven7up
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Look! It's a bird, no it's a plane, no it's a bicycle built for two!
This forum is a debate area to discuss issues pertaining to the LDS - Mormons. This forum is generally for theists only, and is generaly not the area for debate between atheists and theists. Non-theists may not post here without first obtaining permission from the moderator of this forum. Granting of such permission is subject to Moderator discretion - and may be revoked if the Moderator feels that the poster is not keeping with the spirit of the World Religions Department.
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Originally posted by RBerman View PostAs more information about his life and the inconsistencies of his teaching come to light, that seems inevitable. A very different social dynamic is at work today than when people were giving up their homes and moving cross country to be with him and let him "marry" their wives, daughters, and servants.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostHow many of those were angry Mormons who felt betrayed and stabbed in the back? Smith had a tendency to get his own followers really angry at him.
Smith was more like a cartoon villain than a prophet.
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Originally posted by seven7up View Post
No it doesn't. We have God being the Father in a spiritual sense, and then we have God being the Father in a new and unique sense; unique to Jesus only.
There are many "sons of God" in a spiritual sense, of whom Jesus Christ is the Firstbegotten among the other "sons of God".
As Paul explained in Col 1:15, Jesus is "the first-born of all creation". This is true of Jesus BEFORE mortality, when all of creation was made subject to Him. This term "first born" is the same Greek term which is in Hebrews chapter 1, and it is also the same as used in Luke 2:7, referring to Jesus being Mary's first child (in mortality). It is the same concept.
By right in the Monarchy, this gives Jesus the position of power and authority. God the Father spiritually begat this unique Son into a position of "pre-eminence" which is his "inheritance" because Jesus is the First born (firstbegotten). All that the Father was given to the Son as the creation, and then it is to be glorified/resurrected and presented again in the "new creation". The correct rendering of verse 4 is given above. Jesus was elevated and "became" better than the angels and "by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they." This is clearly comparing Jesus to the other angels.
The LDS position is that, by nature, Jesus Christ had the inherent characteristics of Deity. In other words, Jesus was a perfect/flawless intelligence from all eternity.
However, as the firstbegotten in spirit, power and authority had to be bestowed upon him, and it was.
He was chosen and called by the Father a to be the Creator of the physical Universe, and to become the Only Begotten Son according to the flesh.
So, the chapter makes perfect sense from this position.
By inheriting the name of the Father,
and being called from among his fellows to become the Savior of the world, it was decreed that the other sons of God would worship Jesus, because Jesus was to become their Redeemer, and was given power over death. This is possible because of His flawless spirit and inherent characteristics of Deity, he would not sin.
Hebrews 1 is teaching a kind of subordinationism was found in the early Christian Church before the Trinity dogma was invented, and it is consistent with the LDS position.
In the early second century, the Shepherd of Hermas spoke of the Holy Spirit as “the angel of the prophetic Spirit” and Jesus as the “‘glorious...angel’ or ‘most venerable...angel.’” Justin Martyr in the mid-second century, wrote that Jesus is “another God and Lord subject to the Maker of all things; who is also called an Angel.” He is “distinct from Him who made all things,—numerically, I mean, not in will.” Also, Justin wrote “We reverence and worship Him (the Father) and the Son who came forth from Him and taught us these things, and the host of other good angels who are about Him and are made quite like Him, and the Prophetic Spirit.”
All of it makes Biblical sense, especially when you consider the two scriptures that I provided for you, where Jesus is called a "Morning Star / Son of the Morning". This is an angelic title.
As you and I both know, Lucifer was an angel who is also called a 'son of the morning' or 'morning star'. Indeed there were many, many "sons of the morning" who are the "sons of God".
You attempted to imply that only those who do God's will can be considered the "sons of god", whether the the title is applied to humans or spirits (angels).
John 1:12
12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name
However, we see in the book of Acts, "all the nations" are considered to be God's offspring (Greek - genos). GENOS kindred , offspring, family, stock, (the aggregate of many individuals of the same nature, kind, sort).
Acts 17:28 For in him we live, and move, and have our being;
Just as the pagans in Athens believed, and specifically their poets that Paul was referring to:
Cilician poet Aratus (315-240 BCE): “It is with Zeus that every one of us in every way has to do, for we are also his offspring” (Phaenonlena 5).
And learned Greeks would know that Promethius was the one who actually formed man from the clay, but that Zeus was the supreme God in the Greek Pantheon, so he was the one by whom they continued to exist.
Also, we see that Lucifer is still considered a "son of the morning" after he had fallen from heaven. "How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning!" (Isa 14:12)
So, we can conclude that all spirits and all men are "sons of God" and the "offspring of God", in the original sense and even when "fallen".
Adam is a "son of God" as are all the rest of the human family in the ultimate sense.
It is true that with sin, we become alienated from the Father, and in that sense, that we lose our position and the rights that sons would have, but that is not an ontological change (it is not a change of what kind of being we are).
In fact, the only reason that we are capable of obtaining "Eternal Life" is because, through Christs atonement, it brings us back to a kind of position before God which we had in paradise, which was previously lost
- only now we are as God said to the other gods, "man has become as one of us, knowing good and evil".
That is the story of mankind in the Garden of Eden - children of God within God's presence who left that place in order to enter mortality.
Again a Biblical story providing a picture of LDS theology; a premortal existence in the presence of God.
He is also called the "Firstbegotten" who is brought into the world (Hebrews 1) and also the "first born of all creation". Both titles are appropriate BEFORE the incarnation.
You are referring to a "foreordination" to become the "Only Begotten Son".
"We affirm, on the authority of Holy Scripture, that the Being who is known among men as Jesus of Nazareth, and by all who acknowledge His Godhood as Jesus the Christ, existed with the Father prior to birth in the flesh; and that in the preexistent state He was chosen and ordained to be the one and only Savior and Redeemer of the human race. Foreordination implies and comprises preexistence as an essential condition; therefore scriptures bearing upon the one are germane to the other;" (Talmage - Jesus the Christ)
(Foundations of the Christian Way of Life According to 1 Peter 1, 13-25: An Exegetico-theological Study by Jacob Prasad)
Hebrews verse 9 says the following: "Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows."
From your position, you have to pretend that Jesus was not chosen or anointed until AFTER he became mortal.
We know that this is not true. Look how reasons are given for why the God of Jesus anointed him from among his fellows - namely Jesus loved righteousness and hated iniquity.
This must be true before mortality, for Jesus, "Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world (1 Peter 1:20) You cannot claim that God chose Jesus as an afterthought, after he became a man.
Furthermore, there is no sense in claiming that Jesus was "elected" or "chosen" or "foreordained", if from before the foundation of the world, there was nobody else to choose from.
As I said, the context of Hebrews 1 is clearly discussing angels, and Jesus being elected from among them, thus "becoming better" than them, and "obtaining" a better name than them by inheritance.
Heb 1:13 But to which of the angels has He ever said,
“Sit at My right hand,
Until I make Your enemies
A footstool for Your feet”?
Heb 1:14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent out to render service for the sake of those who will inherit salvation?
Were Jesus just "another angel", the answer would be "That angel", or the question should have included the word "Other".
In Isaiah 42:1, we find these prophetic words about Jesus: “Behold! My Servant whom I uphold, my elect/chosen one in whom my soul delights"
(Bill posted Deuteronomy 18)
15 “The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your brothers—it is to him you shall listen—
...
18 I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him.
That is correct. We are ALL brothers. Jesus included.
We were brothers before this life and we are brothers in mortality.
And we are all created by God in the image and likeness of God.
There are many sons of God according to the spirit,
but Jesus Christ was ordained from before the foundation of the world to be the Only Begotten according to the flesh.
You and I both know that "sons of God" or "children of God" is a title applied to both spirits in Heaven (ie angels), AND it is applied to humans on Earth.
Humans are simply spirits (spiritual sons - angels) placed into physical bodies, and our memory is veiled so that we can live in mortality by faith, rather than a perfect knowledge.
If God wanted us to have a perfect knowledge of his existence, he could have revealed Himself in glory to the whole world at any time.
The idea that angels and humans are different species of beings is an error.
I agree that Jesus should be worshiped, and other angels should not.
Again, this is because the "scepter" of the kingdom was passed from the Father only to the first born Son. That is the imagery of the Hebrews 1 passage. This is the Divine Monarchy. The Father is the King and the first born Son of God "obtains" his inheritance by "becoming" the new King - a perfect profile of LDS doctrine.
Not superficially. It matches LDS doctrine in a very deep and rich way.
I will tell you what DOES NOT match the text: the idea that the Father and Jesus are the same being/substance. That does not match the text at all.
It is not a matter of you trusting Jesus. You are trusting a faulty an uninspired interpretation of the text.
Consider 2 Peter 1:
"For he (Jesus) received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. And this voice which came from heaven we heard, when we were with him in the holy mount. We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."
What you have in the creeds Bill, are documents formed "by the will of man".
Those councils which formed the creeds were full of "private interpretation" and then forced into a vote, and in the case of Nicea, forced by Constantine so that he could consolidate power over the Christian world.
Those men in those councils were not holy men speaking as moved by the Holy Spirit.
I am applying it to the "sons of God", who are both angels and men. They are the same kind of being, only in a different state: one state is a glorious one in the presence of God, and another is a temporarily lower state, as a mortal, subject to infirmity and death and limited in our knowledge of God.
Thank you for agreeing with me. I agree that the term "angel" does not describe an ontologically different kind of being.
In the Old testament, it often simply refers to a spirit son of God, acting as a servant of God before mortality, who is serving as a messenger.
This is the case for Jesus as well, who was known as God the Father's mouthpiece in the Old Testament, as Jehovah/Yahweh, "the Word of God", the "Angel of the Lord's presence".
-7upLast edited by Bill the Cat; 05-05-2014, 12:53 PM.That's what
- She
Without a clear-cut definition of sin, morality becomes a mere argument over the best way to train animals
- Manya the Holy Szin (The Quintara Marathon)
I may not be as old as dirt, but me and dirt are starting to have an awful lot in common
- Stephen R. Donaldson
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Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostWell, GEE, since he was supposedly hearing DIRECTLY FROM "the Father", yeah... I think that's a pretty significant detail to get totally WRONG. But, NO, that is NOT what I am implying...
Joseph had a vision. He didn't sit down and eat dinner with God the Father. He didn't touch God the Father. At that point, there is no way that Joseph could have known that the embodiment of the Father was tangible. It took a specific revelation to reveal that concept. So, you have no real point to make here.
However, it is a good lead in to another aspect of this discussion, concerning the nature of God. When God is presented in the Bible, the member of the Godhead being referred to is always shown to have a location. How is God "omnipresent"?
"God is considered to be everywhere present at the same moment; and the Psalmist says, “Whither shall I flee from thy presence?” [Psalm 139:7]. He is present with all his creations through his influence, through his government, spirit and power, but he himself is a personage of tabernacle, and we are made after his likeness" (DBY, 24).
-7up
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7UP: Those councils which formed the creeds were full of "private interpretation" and then forced into a vote, and in the case of Nicea, forced by Constantine so that he could consolidate power over the Christian world.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostYou are thoroughly ignorant of Constantine's role in Nicea. Eusebius said that Constantine didn't care what conclusion they came to, only that a conclusion was reached to stave off chaos.
7UP: The early creeds (like the Nicene Creed and the Athanasian Creed) did not define things that specifically. Why don't you provide me with your modern detailed definition of the Trinity, your "creed" so to speak. Then we can discuss it.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostThe relationship between the Father, Son and Holy Spirit is one substance (ousia) and three co-equal persons (hypostaseis).
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostThere is only one God, ...
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View Post(God is) unchangeable in His eternal Godhood.
As we know, in the example of Jesus Christ, we see how Deity can become flesh, grow into an adult in mortality, die, resurrect to an exalted state, etc. Those could be considered "changes" in a certain sense. So, what do you mean by unchangeable "in His eternal Godhead"?
The problem I have with the "unchangeable" term is this: While the scriptures use the idea of unchangeable referring to God in terms of keeping promises and so forth, Trinitarianism attempts to take the "unchangeable" concept to some kind of metaphysical sense. That goes far beyond the warrant of the Biblical text and appears to be borrowed from the Greek philosophical view of God, (ie the unmoved mover).
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View Post(God is) uncreated.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostThere exists within that one substance we call God 3 distinct centers of consciousness,...
The very concept of 3 centers of consciousness was met and opposed by many Trinitarians as a form of "tritheism". 3 centers of consciousness implies that it is not a "single substance", but instead 3 persons, who are separate in a certain sense (separate consciousnesses) with the same characteristics. They are united in a perichoresis and harmony of will. A special communication between them. That is an LDS point of view. Welcome to the club. Of course you cannot say that, because you have already defined it as a "single Being". Again, contradictions arise.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View Post...if you preserve monotheism as the central key.
7UP: What does it mean to be "co-equal"?
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostIt means that one is not "less God" than another.
You gave an example of your wife being subservient to you, but that is a bad example, because you and your wife are not supposedly the same being.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostNone of them "became God".
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostThey are all 3 fully God, yet there is only one God.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostOne can not be taken away from being God, ....
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View Post... nor can any other being "join" them as God.
-7up
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostJoseph had a vision.
He didn't sit down and eat dinner with God the Father. He didn't touch God the Father.
At that point, there is no way that Joseph could have known that the embodiment of the Father was tangible. It took a specific revelation to reveal that concept. So, you have no real point to make here.
However, it is a good lead in to another aspect of this discussion, concerning the nature of God. When God is presented in the Bible, the member of the Godhead being referred to is always shown to have a location. How is God "omnipresent"?
"God is considered to be everywhere present at the same moment; and the Psalmist says, “Whither shall I flee from thy presence?” [Psalm 139:7]. He is present with all his creations through his influence, through his government, spirit and power, but he himself is a personage of tabernacle, and we are made after his likeness" (DBY, 24).The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostIn a spiritual sense in that He created our spirits. In the same metaphorical sense as Euclid was the "Father" of geometry.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostHe did not create the Son. He created us.
"We have had fathers of our flesh which corrected us, and we gave them reverence: shall we not much rather be in subjection unto the Father of our Spirits and live?" (Hebrews 12:9)
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostHe is the prototokos, which here emphasizes His pre-eminence over all creation, not a numerical order of His "birth". That's why, in Col 1:15, He is called "prototokos pases ktiseos" or "firstborn of all creation". If we look at Jeremiah 31:9, we see an example which really shows how the most prominent to God was actually called "my firstborn" (Ephraim). Although Manassah was actually the firstborn child (Genesis 41:50-52), God chose Ephraim and thus says "as for Ephraim, he is my firstborn" (Jer. 31:9). If we take your numeric order literally, ...
7UP: By right in the Monarchy, this gives Jesus the position of power and authority. God the Father spiritually begat this unique Son into a position of "pre-eminence" which is his "inheritance" because Jesus is the First born (firstbegotten). All that the Father has was given to the Son as the creation, and then it is to be glorified/resurrected and presented again in the "new creation". The correct rendering of verse 4 is given above. Jesus was elevated and "became" better than the angels and "by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they." This is clearly comparing Jesus to the other angels.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostYes, comparing Him to them because the Jews were worshipping the angels instead of their rightful King. But it in no way EQUATES them.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostJesus is not considered of the same species as those whom God "makes His angels winds, And His ministers a flame of fire". The writer is stressing the different roles that the Son plays and the angels play. He is not saying they are the same species.
7UP: The LDS position is that, by nature, Jesus Christ had the inherent characteristics of Deity. In other words, Jesus was a perfect/flawless intelligence from all eternity.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostAnd thus, not at all like His Father or us, who all had/have to be granted our perfection based on another's righteousness.
7UP: ... as the firstbegotten in spirit, power and authority had to be bestowed upon him, and it was.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostSorry, but no. There are several times where a literal "first born" child did not receive God's title of "first born".
7UP: He was chosen and called by the Father a to be the Creator of the physical Universe, and to become the Only Begotten Son according to the flesh.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostI have no problem with this statement. But, again, this does not imply that there were other options to choose from, nor that the Son and angels (or the bene elohim) were "offspring" in the same manner.
7UP: So, the chapter makes perfect sense from this position.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostNo it doesn't. It makes Jesus "just another angel" ...
7UP: By inheriting the name of the Father,
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostHe inherited the name/title "King of the Jews"
7UP: and being called from among his fellows to become the Savior of the world, it was decreed that the other sons of God would worship Jesus, because Jesus was to become their Redeemer, and was given power over death. This is possible because of His flawless spirit and inherent characteristics of Deity, he would not sin.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostAgain, the Jews were His "fellows", not the gentiles, and certainly not the angels.
Your denial on this is mind-boggling. Who are "they" in this verse? The Jews? That is ridiculous Bill. The context is clearly speaking of the angels, the sons of God. God the Father was establishing a unique relationship with Jesus, a position which was not given to the other spirits.
7UP: Hebrews 1 is teaching a kind of subordinationism was found in the early Christian Church before the Trinity dogma was invented, and it is consistent with the LDS position.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostIt was teaching no such thing. It was teaching the Kingship of Jesus over Israel.
7UP: In the early second century, the Shepherd of Hermas spoke of the Holy Spirit as “the angel of the prophetic Spirit” and Jesus as the “‘glorious...angel’ or ‘most venerable...angel.’” Justin Martyr in the mid-second century, wrote that Jesus is “another God and Lord subject to the Maker of all things; who is also called an Angel.” He is “distinct from Him who made all things,—numerically, I mean, not in will.” Also, Justin wrote “We reverence and worship Him (the Father) and the Son who came forth from Him and taught us these things, and the host of other good angels who are about Him and are made quite like Him, and the Prophetic Spirit.”
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostThe context here is not the number of gods, but the operation of the persons with each other. Justin was discussing with Trypho the impossibility of a strictly unipersonal monotheistic God when the scriptures say that He is not unipersonal. Justin says later “For they who affirm that the Son is the Father, are proved neither to have become acquainted with the Father, nor to know that the Father of the universe has a Son; who also, being the first-begotten Word of God, is even God.” Justin never directly mentions that there is only one God because Trypho and he already agree on it. What He is arguing for is that there are multiple persons in the one God, and that the Son was who appeared to the Partiarchs.
7UP: All of it makes Biblical sense, especially when you consider the two scriptures that I provided for you, where Jesus is called a "Morning Star / Son of the Morning". This is an angelic title.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostNo it is not. It is a description of the amount of glory radiating from someone. ... In fact, this glory is to be given to Christians who overcome the world (See Rev 2:28)
7UP: As you and I both know, Lucifer was an angel who is also called a 'son of the morning' or 'morning star'. Indeed there were many, many "sons of the morning" who are the "sons of God".
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostAs reflections of God's glory, they were radiant beings, ...
The strength of the LDS position is far better than you are willing to admit.
-7up
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Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostThere are different versions of the "first vision" in which he contradicts his own "testimony".
Right. They contradict. Just like Matthew, Mark, Luke and John "contradict" each other. Oh, and stop trying to change the subject.
Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostGod is spirit.
in 1 Corinthians 2:11, Paul wrote about "the spirit of man and the Spirit of God." Elsewhere he spoke of the resurrection of the body and then noted that it is a "spiritual" body (1 Corinthians 15:44-46). He also said things like, "But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you" (Romans 8:9).
So, you cannot throw in verses like John 4:24 in isolation and attempt to claim that it means what you want it to mean.
We are all spirit:
God is "the God of the spirits of all flesh" (Numbers 16:22) (Numbers 27:16)
Furthermore we have had fathers of our flesh which corrected us, and we gave them reverence: shall we not much rather be in subjection unto the Father of our Spirits and live? (Hebrews 12:9)
1 Cor 6:17 "But the one who joins himself to the Lord is one spirit with Him."
Also consider the words of Jesus: Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. 6"That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. 7"Do not be amazed that I said to you, 'You must be born again.'…
Tell me Cow Poke, does John 3:6 teach that when we are "born again" or "born of the Spirit", we no longer have a physical body?
Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostGod... is not a man in a physical body.
For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,
For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body.
For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily,
For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the God bodily.
-7up
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostThen you deny the truthfulness of Col 2:9The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostThen you deny the truthfulness of Col 2:9
And then there's a warning....
I believe Smith was all about beguiling his followers with enticing words.
This is all about Christ. It flat out says so. Then more warnings against deception:
And THEN, after the warnings of deception, we have the truth about Christ:
This refers to Christ, not God, regardless of how you want to twist it.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostI never even implied that Constantine cared what the conclusion was. He forced a resolution to the conflict so that he could maintain power.
The result was a compromise between contradictory positions, and thus the incoherent dogma was invented with new terms and new ways of defining words.
"Ousia" was never applied to any member of the Godhead in the Bible or applied to God in general at all.
Even so, if ousia originally means "what a person has" or even "a person's characteristics", then even LDS would say that God the Father has the same "ousia" as the Son. Then the creeds changed the definition of the word.
From: David Hamlyn - Metaphysics - Cambridge, Cambridge University Press, 1984 p. 60.
"For Aristotle, 'substances' are the things which exist in their own right, both the logically ultimate subjects of predication and the ultimate objects of scientific inquiry. They are the unified material objects, as well as the natural stuffs, identifiable in sense-experience, each taken to be a member of a natural species with its 'form' and functional essence. Entities in other categories -- qualities, actions, relations and so forth -- are treated as dependent on, if not just abstracted aspects of, these independent realities.
LDS can say they believe in "one God", and as I have demonstrated, we use "oneness" of persons as it is used and understood everywhere else in the Biblical text.
There are problems when making a blanket claim that "God is unchangeable". Therefore, it may be necessary to add to the language "unchangeable in His eternal Godhead".
As we know, in the example of Jesus Christ, we see how Deity can become flesh, grow into an adult in mortality, die, resurrect to an exalted state, etc. Those could be considered "changes" in a certain sense.
So, what do you mean by unchangeable "in His eternal Godhead"?
The problem I have with the "unchangeable" term is this: While the scriptures use the idea of unchangeable referring to God in terms of keeping promises and so forth, Trinitarianism attempts to take the "unchangeable" concept to some kind of metaphysical sense.
There is a God who will never cease to exist. But He is more than eternal. He is absolutely unchanging. Of old Thou didst found the earth; And the heavens are the work of Thy hands. Even they will perish, but Thou dost endure; And all of them will wear out like a garment; Like clothing Thou wilt change them, and they will be changed. But Thou art the same, And Thy years will not come to an end (verses 25-27).
That goes far beyond the warrant of the Biblical text and appears to be borrowed from the Greek philosophical view of God, (ie the unmoved mover).
The creeds often say that Jesus is "begotten, not made". Yet again, the definition of "begotten" must be changed entirely.
The concept of 3 centers of consciousness is a relatively new concept in Trinitarian theory, and was actually a move closer to the Mormon position. For starters, IF God the Father is literally omnipresent, then how can such a being have a "center" of consciousness?
The very concept of 3 centers of consciousness was met and opposed by many Trinitarians as a form of "tritheism".
3 centers of consciousness implies that it is not a "single substance", but instead 3 persons, who are separate in a certain sense (separate consciousnesses) with the same characteristics.
They are united in a perichoresis and harmony of will. A special communication between them.
That is an LDS point of view.
Welcome to the club. Of course you cannot say that, because you have already defined it as a "single Being". Again, contradictions arise.
It also depends on how you define "monotheism", which is also a term not found in the scriptures.
It just goes back to the concept of "one God". In what sense are they "one"? Jews will argue with you and say that you are not a "monotheist".
I agree that Jesus is "fully God".
Originally posted by Seventy Milton Hunter - 1949... During his pre-mortal life Jesus Christ rose to the status of Godhood
LDS Conference Report, October 1949, p. 69Originally posted by "Apostle" James Talmageso the Father before Him had trodden the same path of progression from manhood to Godhood
The Essential James E. Talmage, edited by James P. Harris, p. 132Originally posted by Carter, K. CodellEncyclopedia of Mormonism
Latter-day Saints believe that Jesus Christ attained godhood (see Christology) and that he marked the path and led the way for others likewise to become exalted divine beings by following him
Nevertheless, the Father is greater than the Son in glory and authority.
So, that puts a damper on the "co-equal" notion.
As I said, the definition of co-equal is "equal with one another; having the same rank or importance". However, it appears that the Father has a higher rank than the Son.
You gave an example of your wife being subservient to you, but that is a bad example, because you and your wife are not supposedly the same being.
The LDS view is that Jesus, for example, had a perfect/flawless intelligence from eternity with the characteristics of Deity.
However, does your definition of "God" require the concept of power and authority? We see that power and authority is "given" from the Father to the Son.
We have 3 full glasses of water.
How many glasses of water do you have? You have 3 glasses of water. You can even say that each glass of water has the same substance. But I don't even think you could accept that analogy. Can you?
I agree that they cannot be "taken away" from being God.
Certainly we cannot become the same Being. That is impossible. Just as what you are proposing is impossible We can become "like" them though.Last edited by Bill the Cat; 05-08-2014, 11:57 AM.That's what
- She
Without a clear-cut definition of sin, morality becomes a mere argument over the best way to train animals
- Manya the Holy Szin (The Quintara Marathon)
I may not be as old as dirt, but me and dirt are starting to have an awful lot in common
- Stephen R. Donaldson
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My other question that I have never gotten a satisfactory answer to: If man has to go through mortality, get sealed to a mortal woman, be a good mormon, etc, to become exalted into a God, then why didn't Jesus or the Holy Spirit have to? Jesus was a god in his premortal existence and did not get a body till later. The holy spirit still hasn't gotten a body. How are they gods? According to the LDS even the Father had to be a man and all that before becoming a God.
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Originally posted by Sparko View PostMy other question that I have never gotten a satisfactory answer to: If man has to go through mortality, get sealed to a mortal woman, be a good mormon, etc, to become exalted into a God, then why didn't Jesus or the Holy Spirit have to? Jesus was a god in his premortal existence and did not get a body till later. The holy spirit still hasn't gotten a body. How are they gods? According to the LDS even the Father had to be a man and all that before becoming a God.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostHave you ever wondered if Smith was a God of a planet yet? And is OUR Heaven the "common Heaven" for ALL the planets? Or does each planet have its own Heaven. Cause you can't get in OUR Heaven without Smith punching your ticket, so if he's the God of his OWN planet....
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