Originally posted by Cow Poke
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Look! It's a bird, no it's a plane, no it's a bicycle built for two!
This forum is a debate area to discuss issues pertaining to the LDS - Mormons. This forum is generally for theists only, and is generaly not the area for debate between atheists and theists. Non-theists may not post here without first obtaining permission from the moderator of this forum. Granting of such permission is subject to Moderator discretion - and may be revoked if the Moderator feels that the poster is not keeping with the spirit of the World Religions Department.
Due to the sensitive nature of the LDS Temple Ceremonies to our LDS posters, we do not allow posting exact text of the temple rituals, articles describing older versions of the ceremony, or links that provide the same information. However discussion of generalities of the ceremony are not off limits. If in doubt, PM the area mod or an Admin
Non-theists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 forum without such restrictions.
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Mormon Trinity
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"Kahahaha! Let's get lunatic!"-Add LP
"And the Devil did grin, for his darling sin is pride that apes humility"-Samuel Taylor Coleridge
Oh ye of little fiber. Do you not know what I've done for you? You will obey. ~Cerealman for Prez.
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7UP: So, when the Book of Mormon said, Mary "is the mother of God, after the manner of the flesh," it is accurate.
Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostThis is what you don't get -- Joseph claims to have gotten this from the "golden plates". WHY would "the most perfect book on earth" need "clarified" on such a crucial point?
Let's look at the claim of the "translation" process... (bolding mine)
-7up
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Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostInteresting you should try to make that comparison, 7up.
When God wanted us to know about Salvation through Christ, He sent us a sinless Savior prophesied throughout the Old Testament, and one in whom no guile was found, and sinless.
When Smith wanted us to believe that God sent HIMSELF to "restore" what Christ had done, God supposedly used a glass looking money digging woman chasing self promoting opportunist who couldn't get his story straight right from the beginning.
However, I will say that people accused Jesus of being a lunatic, a fraud, or a myth. They still do. So, if a perfect and sinless man is accused of such things, then a sinful human being is even more likely to come under criticism.
Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostI'm saying [the Book of Mormon] DID teach the Trinity, then Modalism, ....
So, then what do you do? You go into Ad hominem which does not advance the conversation.
Originally posted by Cow Poke View Posta glass looking money digging woman chasing self promoting opportunist ...I believe Smith was a pathological liar and a fraud.
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Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostI would (and I imagine you would, too) be VERY careful about my pronouncements, personal character, trustworthiness, sexual conduct, faithfulness to my wife,
Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostInteresting you should bring up the wife, 7up. That's the point at which I first began confidently declaring Smith a fraud -
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So, are we going to discuss the translation process? Polygamy? Whether or not prophets are flawed? Why don't you just throw in the Book of Abraham while you are at it?
This conversation is going to go nowhere if this is how you handle a discussion.
What was the original topic again?
-7up
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Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostAgain, I wasn't saying that at all. You seem to be conveniently missing the whole point. In the EARLY STAGES, Mormonism taught the Trinity.
3 Nephi 9:15 “Behold, I am Jesus Christ
the Son of God. I created the heavens and the earth,
and all things that in them are. I was with the Father
from the beginning. now let's look at the Lectures on Faith.
Having place WITH another Being, the Father, precludes the notion that Jesus is that same Being.
Originally posted by Cow Poke View Post
Note that God the Father was a SPIRIT, not a man with flesh and bones.
Sidney Rigdon wrote most of the Lectures on Faith. We see here that he understood God the Father as being the same way that Jesus was described in the Book of Mormon, as an embodied spirit with hands, eyes, head, etc. Why didn't Joseph correct the "personage of spirit" phrasing? Because Joseph Smith didn't know that yet. Why would he? It is not like he had an opportunity to touch God the Father's physical body. That detail had to be revealed specifically to Joseph.
Earlier on this thread, I asked:
7UP: Are you asking whether or not Joseph Smith received from God every concept (related to the nature of the Godhead) all at once at the very beginning?
You responded:
Originally posted by Cow Poke View PostAnd AGAIN I answer, no
-7up
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Originally posted by Sparko View PostHow could Smith get anything wrong, 7up? He supposedly talked and saw God directly. He had the golden plates too. Exactly where would the confusion, or inconsistencies come from?
Again, I give you a comparison to the apostles in the gospel accounts of the New Testament. These guys were with Jesus Christ every day for at least a couple years. They STILL had all kinds of misunderstandings. Even after receiving teachings about certain specific things from Jesus, they still didn't grasp the concepts.
Double standard much Sparko?
Originally posted by Sparko View PostWhy would he tell Smith that the Trinity was true, then tell him it wasn't?
These were produced by Joseph Smith in 1830:
Joseph rendered the meaning of Genesis 1:26 as:
"And I, God, said unto mine Only Begotten, which was with me from the beginning, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness; and it was so....And I, God, created man in mine own image, in the image of mine Only Begotten created I him; male and female created I them." (Moses 2:26-27.)
What does it mean when God says he created man "in mine own image"? Joseph Smith rendered the meaning of Genesis 5:1-2 as follows:
"In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; in the image of his own body, male and female, created he them" (Moses 6:8-9; emphasis added).
So, we have the teaching of a separation of the Father and Son, and insisting that both had some type of physical form which could be copied in the creation of humanity.
Lucy Mack Smith, Joseph's mother, mentioned that the LDS concept of God was different than that of other denominations (also in 1830):
"the different denominations are very much opposed to us.... for they worship a God without body or parts, and they know that our faith comes in contact with this principle."
Originally posted by Sparko View PostWake up dude! Read your own religion's literature with a bit of skepticism and ask some hard questions.
Trust me Sparko, I have likely read more anti-mormon literature than you have. And when I come upon accusations like you and Cow Poke just attempted to promote, such as "early LDS taught the Trinity/Modalism" , I just shake my head and marvel at how uninformed you guys really are. All you have investigated is a bunch of biased sources providing half-truths and misinformation.
-7up
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Contrasting the LDS view to the Trinity
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostIt's the way the Church has handled people who invent novel ideas that contradict what the Apostles taught their students all along,
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostThat's just a plain crappy bastardization of the Trinity doctrine. No one says the Father and Son are equal in authority. What we claim is they are co-equal in their essence. Functional subordination vs. ontological equality.
However, I have a feeling that we will be given into the Trinity word games and become lost. What does it mean to be "co-equal"? The definition is "equal with one another; having the same rank or importance". Not only does it imply equality between two things or two beings, but the same "rank" would mean the same authority. So you have to say, as you do here, that they are not equal in authority, but instead in "essence" or "glory" or "power". Well, you then have to explain why they would be equal in glory and power, if one has authority over the other. Why does the essence have authority here, but that same essence does not have authority there. Or if they are the same essence or the same being, how can it have authority and rank over itself? You then have to make up more phrases like "Functional subordination vs. ontological equality" in order to twist it into a level where people finally have to just say, "Eh, its a mystery."
7UP: We read in verse 3 that Jesus is not the same substance as the Father, but instead is a COPY of the Father or the "image/stamped imprint/facsimile/ of the Father's person".* There is a difference because the phrase "same substance" implies that they are literally the same being. That is not what the scriptures said.*
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostRubbish. He is the exact representation of the Father's nature (or those things that make God God), ...
You say the "exact" representation, and Mormons would agree with that. However, your theology has to start qualifying that statement by shaving off certain characteristics.
7UP: Bill brought up the earlier discussion of Ex Nihilo creation, whereby I argued that there is no true free will in Ex Nihilo creation theology. I also addressed how the philosophical problems of evil and suffering in that scenario are insurmountable.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostYou argued that they were, but you failed miserably, when your argument boiled down to simply whining that "God COULD HAVE done better" in ex nihilo. And I showed you how that whine can be applicable to every theory of God, including yours.
Case in point:
7UP: I lay out some of the details of those issues here in a video series: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?lis...lH9MxxLwwWnAea
However, I did not yet create the video which discussed how Ex Nihilo Creation theology affected the development of Trinitarian dogma.
The Arian controversy following the era of Apostolic Christianity was mishandled.* The reason that the debate was fruitless is because almost all of the Christians had adopted "Ex Nihilo" creation theology by then, and creation "from nothing" was a foundation from which correct doctrines could not develop. We can all agree that if Jesus was "created out of nothing", then he could not be Deity.* In a sense, the Arians / Semi-Arians and subordinationalists had very good points, but the concept of creatio ex nihilo made it impossible to defend their case coherently.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostSimply untrue. Deity can not be created nor obtained as an inherent nature. ... Any form of polytheism falls apart when a created being is classified as deity in and of itself.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostBut the problem exists when we understand that there is only one deity that exists as fire in and of itself. Lighting another fire implies that the first was also lit by something else. The fire had to start somewhere, and those things who were "lit" are mere immitations of that which is fire in and of itself, and that never needed something else to light it. The Son was never "lit", which implies that there was a time when He was "unlit". He has always been on fire as the Father has, as the Spirit has, yet there is only one "eternal flame" which is God.
Justin Martyr placed the genesis of the "Logos" as a voluntary act of the Father before the beginning of creation. This is fine from an LDS perspective as long as you understand that this is not meant to imply creation from nothing. The "flames" spread to a unique and uncreated intelligence which had perfect characteristics from eternity. Jesus Christ became the Firstbegotten in spirit and was "naturally" Deity (which gave Him the birthright to become the Firstbegotten in physical immortality as well). This concept fits Scripture.
How do Trinitarians get around the teaching of Jesus being created/begotten? That would be problematic because, from the Ex Nihilo perspective, that would imply that Jesus is not an eternal being. So, those making the creeds invented the phrase "eternally begotten", as if the Son must be continuously sustained and issued forth from the Father.
I find that phrase problematic because, "in Christ all the fullness of Deity dwells bodily". (Col 2:9)
How can the "fullness of Deity" be found withing Jesus Christ himself, if he has to be "eternally begotten"?
To the contrary, according to my view, in the Godhead, there is a "oneness" that exists among 3 beings, each of whom are fully "Deity", because, for example, the fire spread to another eternal being, who now has this fullness of Deity as a result. However, keep in mind that they are not "separate" in the complete sense, because they also hold a deep interpersonal relationship.
Now, IF they were not each considered fully Deity individually, it could not be said of Jesus that he has "the fulness of Deity" as the scriptures claim, because according to your view, the fulness of Deity must include all 3 as one being. In other words, Trinitarians (and Modalists) contradict the scriptures because they force themselves into a position whereby the fullness of Deity must be referring to all three together as an immutable, incomprehensible and omnipresent essence - Logically this means that the fulness of Deity cannot exist within Jesus bodily.
And finally, the LDS faith simply defines "oneness" differently than you do, as we use "oneness" in the same way as it is used in the Bible. We do not take the idea of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit being "one" to the literal extreme that Trinitarians and Modalists do. We understand that being "one" refers to that harmony and "perichoresis" of the those within that deep interpersonal relationship whereby their spirits hold a constant communication and singular will.
-7up
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostWhy do you think that talking to God or having the golden plates would automatically impart to Joseph all aspects of theological knowledge all at once?
"Teach A"
Ooooops, Did I say "Teach A"?
I meant "Teach B"
Smith made it up as he went along.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostThe similarity isn't that Joseph measures up to Jesus. Not even close.
However, I will say that people accused Jesus of being a lunatic, a fraud, or a myth. They still do. So, if a perfect and sinless man is accused of such things, then a sinful human being is even more likely to come under criticism.
-7up
MAJOR big difference, and it's a slap in the face to Christ that you would attempt to drag Him down in such a disgusting manner.
Smith was a fraud. Jesus was sinless.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostWhy do you think that talking to God or having the golden plates would automatically impart to Joseph all aspects of theological knowledge all at once?
So there would be no errors. God would not change his mind. Smith would get it all correctly. But he didn't.
Again, I give you a comparison to the apostles in the gospel accounts of the New Testament. These guys were with Jesus Christ every day for at least a couple years. They STILL had all kinds of misunderstandings. Even after receiving teachings about certain specific things from Jesus, they still didn't grasp the concepts.
Double standard much Sparko?
The early church did not teach that "the Trinity was true".
Say the folks who think they know about the my religion because they read some anti-mormon web sites.
Trust me Sparko, I have likely read more anti-mormon literature than you have. And when I come upon accusations like you and Cow Poke just attempted to promote, such as "early LDS taught the Trinity/Modalism" , I just shake my head and marvel at how uninformed you guys really are. All you have investigated is a bunch of biased sources providing half-truths and misinformation.
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Originally posted by seven7up View PostThe similarity isn't that Joseph measures up to Jesus. Not even close.
God is in the still small voice. In all these affidavits, indictments, it is all of the devil--all corruption. Come on! ye prosecutors! ye false swearers! All hell, boil over! Ye burning mountains, roll down your lava! for I will come out on the top at last. I have more to boast of than ever any man had. I am the only man that has ever been able to keep a whole church together since the days of Adam. A large majority of the whole have stood by me. Neither Paul, John, Peter, nor Jesus ever did it. I boast that no man ever did such a work as I. The followers of Jesus ran away from Him; but the Latter-day Saints never ran away from me yet.
Joseph Smith, History of the Church, Vol. 6, pp. 408-409
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Originally posted by Sparko View PostThat's not what Smith taught.
God is in the still small voice. In all these affidavits, indictments, it is all of the devil--all corruption. Come on! ye prosecutors! ye false swearers! All hell, boil over! Ye burning mountains, roll down your lava! for I will come out on the top at last. I have more to boast of than ever any man had. I am the only man that has ever been able to keep a whole church together since the days of Adam. A large majority of the whole have stood by me. Neither Paul, John, Peter, nor Jesus ever did it. I boast that no man ever did such a work as I. The followers of Jesus ran away from Him; but the Latter-day Saints never ran away from me yet.
Joseph Smith, History of the Church, Vol. 6, pp. 408-409"Kahahaha! Let's get lunatic!"-Add LP
"And the Devil did grin, for his darling sin is pride that apes humility"-Samuel Taylor Coleridge
Oh ye of little fiber. Do you not know what I've done for you? You will obey. ~Cerealman for Prez.
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Originally posted by Cerealman View PostWow,guy had a pretty big ego.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Hebrews 1
7UP: God the Father IS God/Deity. Jesus Christ IS God/Deity. It is quite difficult to "differentiate" between them because they act as "one".
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostBecause there is only one God.
The question is: In what sense are they "one"? Oneness of God can be found in scripture in the following ways:
(1) There is only one perfectly united, mutually indwelling, divine community. We call that community "God" and there is only one such community.
(2) There is only one God who is our Father or the fount of divinity (ie "the Most High God).
(3) There is only one divine nature or set of properties severally necessary and jointly sufficient for divinity.
(4) When compared to the false gods of other nations, there was only one Lord/Saviour who could provide redemption/salvation
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostIf your claim that the Father is the literal father of all angels, then vs. 5 is nonsense because to ALL of the angels He is a Father and they are His sons. So, instead of Jesus' unique place as the ONLY begotten, we would have these answers:
Heb 1:5 For to which of the angels did He ever say,
“You are My Son,
Today I have begotten You”?
Answer: ALL of them
And again,
I will be a Father to Him
And He shall be a Son to Me”?
Answer: ALL of them
“Jesus Christ is the heir of this Kingdom—the Only Begotten of the Father according to the flesh, and holds the keys over all this world” (Smith, Teachings, 323 - emphasis added).
Heb 1
9You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness;
Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You
With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostAgain, a kingly praise from Psalm 45:
"Jesus saith unto her, ... I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)
Also, as a side note, IF God and Jesus were the same Being, and IF God the Father were literally omnipresent, then Jesus would not have to "ascend" to Heaven in order to be in the presence of the Father.
7UP: You see here that God (the God of Jesus) chose and anointed Jesus from among his "companions" (sometimes translated "fellows")
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View Postthis is a kingly claim that He alone among humanity was worthy. THAT is the "fellows" or "companions" that are being referred to here, just as in Psalm 45.
Heb 1
4 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
5 For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
6 And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
You are right that Psalms is referring to humanity, but it is clear from the context that Hebrews is referring to the other sons of God (i.e. angels). This is because humanity and the sons of God are the same and Jesus was chosen from among these fellow beings, due to His superiority.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostWrong. We see that He was not an angel (as He was made lower than angels while He sojourned on earth)
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostNo. Hebrews 1 makes a clear distinction that the Son is NOT, nor has He ever been, an angel.
"He blessed Joseph, and said, 'The God before whom my fathers Abraham and Isaac walked, The God who has been my shepherd all my life to this day, The angel who has redeemed me from all evil,'" (Genesis 48:15-16 - emphasis added)
We also know that "morning star" and "son of the morning" are angelic titles.
"I (Jesus) am the root and the descendant of David, the bright morning star." (Rev 22:16 - See also 2 Peter 1:19 which again refers to Jesus as "morning star")
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostJesus is not an angel, so the angels are subject to Him as God. The word "other" in your reply was superfluous and improper.
Originally posted by Bill the Cat View PostColossians 1:16 says that He created them, not organized them.
-7up
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7UP: The similarity isn't that Joseph measures up to Jesus. Not even close.
Originally posted by Sparko View PostThat's not what Smith taught.
God is in the still small voice. In all these affidavits, indictments, it is all of the devil--all corruption. Come on! ye prosecutors! ye false swearers! All hell, boil over! Ye burning mountains, roll down your lava! for I will come out on the top at last. I have more to boast of than ever any man had. I am the only man that has ever been able to keep a whole church together since the days of Adam. A large majority of the whole have stood by me. Neither Paul, John, Peter, nor Jesus ever did it. I boast that no man ever did such a work as I. The followers of Jesus ran away from Him; but the Latter-day Saints never ran away from me yet.
Joseph Smith, History of the Church, Vol. 6, pp. 408-409
Allow me to inform you, since you refuse to inform yourself. Since this was recorded after Joseph's death, some people have doubts that Joseph even said it, or at least not in the way that it is recorded. However, I think that it is likely that Joseph said it. So, let's assume that the quote is 100% accurate. Why was Joseph "boasting"? All we have to do is look at the context of the discourse.
The part you quoted says, "Come on! ye prosecutors! ye false swearers!" He says this because there were people in the crowd who had just attacked him. They persecuted him to try to stop him from building the Church.
With that in mind, let's also see what Joseph said. First he read from one of Paul's letters in the New Testament.
2 Corinthians 11:
"Would to God ye could bear with me a little in my folly: and indeed bear with me.... For I suppose I was not a whit behind the very chiefest apostles. ... As the truth of Christ is in me, no man shall stop me of this boasting in the regions of Achaia. ... I say again, let no man think me a fool; if otherwise, yet as a fool receive me, that I may boast myself a little. That which I speak, I speak it not after the Lord, but as it were foolishly, in this confidence of boasting. Seeing that many glory after the flesh, I will glory also. For ye suffer fools gladly, seeing ye yourselves are wise. ... Howbeit whereinsoever any is bold, (I speak foolishly,) I am bold also."
Paul goes on to boast about being a minister, his lineage as a Hebrew, about being whipped, being shipwrecked, persecuted, etc.
"Christians" had pulled Joseph Smith from his home, beaten him and tarred and feathered him. So, shortly after, Joseph read to the anti-Mormons about Paul, who also was persecuted, but then boasted. But the point of Paul's boasting was not to glory in himself. Paul goes on to say later that in all this he glories in Christ, who made it possible.
So, Joseph Smith reads this chapter from Paul to his audience, then goes on to "boast". Like Paul, he is purposefully boasting from a worldy/"foolish" perspective. After he is done using Paul's tactic, later in the discourse, Joseph then goes on and says that he "teaches the things of Christ" and admonishes the members of the Church to be humble.
So, it is proven again how little you know. The anti-Mormon websites will leave you looking like a fool every time.
-7up
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