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Comparative Religions 101 Guidelines

Welcome to Comp Religions, this is where the sights and sounds of the many world religions come together in a big World's Fair type atmosphere, without those delicious funnel cakes.

World Religions is a theist only type place, but that does not exclude certain religionists who practice non-theistic faiths ala Buddhism. If you are not sure, ask a moderator.

This is not a place where we argue the existence / non-existence of God.

And as usual, the forum rules apply.

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The Qur'an, the Bible and Islam.

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  • siam
    replied
    Originally posted by Dan Zebiri View Post
    Can u also answer Christian3 and my questions on the identity of who 'Samiri' is? On here -

    http://www.theologyweb.com/campus/sh...nd-Islam/page2 -
    Yes --I can easily answer it....but only if there is genuine interest in learning.
    If the intention is to bolster your Christian faith by attacking another faith---that is fine too---just see your apologetics videos and feel-good,... but leave me out... I lack the patience for it.

    Leave a comment:


  • siam
    replied
    Originally posted by Chrawnus View Post
    Because John clearly identifies this Word with Jesus, so a Trinity consisting of the Father, Son and Word would have been out of the question.
    ...but then Jesus is also identified as God therefore, using the same logic, the God & Jesus combo should be "out of the question" too?

    Leave a comment:


  • siam
    replied
    Originally posted by Christian3 View Post
    Siam, Hypatia_Alexandria is not a Christian, so it would be much, much better if you got information about Christianity from a Christian.
    I was looking for a socio-historical perspective on how Christian theology came to be the way it is.

    Leave a comment:


  • siam
    replied
    Originally posted by rogue06 View Post
    Jesus is effectively the Word of God hence in this case Word is a synonym with Jesus. No need to be redundant.
    ...Then Holy Spirit is NOT Jesus?
    Holy Spirit is God, Jesus is God but Holy Spirit is NOT Jesus?

    Leave a comment:


  • rogue06
    replied
    Originally posted by Dan Zebiri View Post
    Yes and I think I've seen that long reply of yours. A while back before the crash.
    I do have a habit of going in to depth with my posts at times

    I just want to be thorough.

    Leave a comment:


  • Christian3
    replied
    Originally posted by siam View Post
    Thankyou

    I looked it up--wiki says:-
    Basil then had to face the growing spread of Arianism. This belief system, which denied that Christ was consubstantial with the Father, was quickly gaining adherents and was seen by many, particularly those in Alexandria most familiar with it, as posing a threat to the unity of the church.[39] Basil entered into connections with the West, and with the help of Athanasius, he tried to overcome its distrustful attitude toward the Homoiousians. The difficulties had been enhanced by bringing in the question as to the essence of the Holy Spirit. Although Basil advocated objectively the consubstantiality of the Holy Spirit with the Father and the Son, he belonged to those, who, faithful to Eastern tradition, would not allow the predicate homoousios to the former; for this he was reproached as early as 371 by the Orthodox zealots among the monks, and Athanasius defended him. He maintained a relationship with Eustathius despite dogmatic differences.

    Why were these people discussing the "question of the essence of the Holy Spirit"? If they needed a Trinity for some reason ---they could have used "The Word" which G of J clearly spells out IS God. Thus word, god, son could have formed an easy trinity?

    Does the Holy Spirit Homo-ousios/Avian-ousios (?) into a Dove?---or use some other process?...or is this process/concept "a mystery" and best ignored?

    What happened to the Holy Ghost? ---apparently some formulations of the Trinity had "Holy Ghost" for the resurrected Jesus, instead of Holy Spirit? Some say it means the same thing---but Holy Spirit is a Dove (God-Dove)---right?

    In G of J---Jesus is called "Lamb of God"---why is "Lamb of God" symbolic and "son of God" literal? ---is this a political choice or misinterpretation over time? (as I understand it---"son of God" also meant King in that era?---but this would have caused political problems for existing "Kings"?)


    U wrote--
    "Prior to his incarnation it was assumed that he was not a man in any way but what happened after his resurrection? Did he revert to just being God? Or did he retain some of his humanity and if so, how much?"
    But ---In (Hellenized?) Christianity, God made man in his image? Therefore, God always has been anthropomorphic? (as in depictions at the Sistine Chapel?)
    Siam, Hypatia_Alexandria is not a Christian, so it would be much, much better if you got information about Christianity from a Christian.

    Leave a comment:


  • JonathanL
    replied
    Originally posted by siam View Post
    Why were these people discussing the "question of the essence of the Holy Spirit"? If they needed a Trinity for some reason ---they could have used "The Word" which G of J clearly spells out IS God. Thus word, god, son could have formed an easy trinity?

    Because John clearly identifies this Word with Jesus, so a Trinity consisting of the Father, Son and Word would have been out of the question.

    Leave a comment:


  • Dan Zebiri
    replied
    Yes and I think I've seen that long reply of yours. A while back before the crash.

    Another claim that proselytizers like Shabbir Ally like to make is the "mysterious numerology of 19" in the koran. But he's only using the 1924 Egyptian standardized koran version. It will be very revealing if he would use the earlier Koran versions-over 20 of them, like the Topkapi or the Yemeni Sana'a ones, if the number "19" would square out!

    Or by using the versions that have no diacritics in the cognates which can have multiple meanings. They'll be driven crazy at the unending totals that are no longer derivatives of 19..there goes their "miracle" pop down the drain.





    Originally posted by rogue06 View Post
    I've seen more than a few claim that the qur'an teaches advanced/modern scientific principles which is immediately followed with the claim that since Muhammad couldn't have known this then the qur'an must be divine.

    Back before the crash the whole mountain/peg thing came out and I posted a fairly extensive rebuttal.

    Leave a comment:


  • rogue06
    replied
    Originally posted by siam View Post
    "Word" is also God? Why isn't it included in the Godhead?
    Jesus is effectively the Word of God hence in this case Word is a synonym with Jesus. No need to be redundant.

    Leave a comment:


  • Hypatia_Alexandria
    replied
    Originally posted by siam View Post
    Thankyou

    I looked it up--wiki says:-
    Basil then had to face the growing spread of Arianism. This belief system, which denied that Christ was consubstantial with the Father, was quickly gaining adherents and was seen by many, particularly those in Alexandria most familiar with it, as posing a threat to the unity of the church.[39] Basil entered into connections with the West, and with the help of Athanasius, he tried to overcome its distrustful attitude toward the Homoiousians. The difficulties had been enhanced by bringing in the question as to the essence of the Holy Spirit. Although Basil advocated objectively the consubstantiality of the Holy Spirit with the Father and the Son, he belonged to those, who, faithful to Eastern tradition, would not allow the predicate homoousios to the former; for this he was reproached as early as 371 by the Orthodox zealots among the monks, and Athanasius defended him. He maintained a relationship with Eustathius despite dogmatic differences.

    Why were these people discussing the "question of the essence of the Holy Spirit"? If they needed a Trinity for some reason ---they could have used "The Word" which G of J clearly spells out IS God. Thus word, god, son could have formed an easy trinity?

    Does the Holy Spirit Homo-ousios/Avian-ousios (?) into a Dove?---or use some other process?...or is this process/concept "a mystery" and best ignored?

    What happened to the Holy Ghost? ---apparently some formulations of the Trinity had "Holy Ghost" for the resurrected Jesus, instead of Holy Spirit? Some say it means the same thing---but Holy Spirit is a Dove (God-Dove)---right?

    In G of J---Jesus is called "Lamb of God"---why is "Lamb of God" symbolic and "son of God" literal? ---is this a political choice or misinterpretation over time? (as I understand it---"son of God" also meant King in that era?---but this would have caused political problems for existing "Kings"?)


    U wrote--
    "Prior to his incarnation it was assumed that he was not a man in any way but what happened after his resurrection? Did he revert to just being God? Or did he retain some of his humanity and if so, how much?"
    But ---In (Hellenized?) Christianity, God made man in his image? Therefore, God always has been anthropomorphic? (as in depictions at the Sistine Chapel?)
    Thanks for your reply, but in light of forum rules, it would be better to continue this exchange on Apologetics 301.

    H_A

    Leave a comment:


  • Dan Zebiri
    replied
    Can u also answer Christian3 and my questions on the identity of who 'Samiri' is? On here -

    http://www.theologyweb.com/campus/sh...nd-Islam/page2 -

    Christian3 said:- You (siam) left out some verses about the Golden Calf from the Qur'an:

    (Moses) said: And what hast thou to say, O Samiri? He said: I perceived what they perceive not, so I seized a handful from the footsteps of the messenger, and then threw it in. Thus my soul commended to me. S. 20:95-96 Pickthall

    He said: So surely We have tried your people after you, and the Samiri has led them astray. S. 20:85 Shakir

    Who was the "Samiri"? Alluded in sura 20/85 above??

    These koranic verses are also very relevant to the "golden calf" incident in the O.T. & the Koran's version of it!




    Originally posted by siam View Post
    "Word" is also God? Why isn't it included in the Godhead?

    Leave a comment:


  • siam
    replied
    Originally posted by rogue06 View Post
    More like it matched up with what Scripture was indicating.
    "Word" is also God? Why isn't it included in the Godhead?

    Leave a comment:


  • siam
    replied
    Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View Post
    It needs to be understood that Christianity in its first two and a half centuries was completely fluid. It comprised a number of competing Christian groups that advocated a variety of theologies. Of course all these various theologies were contested and/or condemned by different Christians who held to other theological persuasions. However, it still remains a fact that in those two and a half centuries there was a plethora of different beliefs and a variety Christian scripture circulating.

    The whole issue of the SonÂ’s relationship to the Father and a Triune deity arose from the development of the religion in its early centuries. It was the innate discrepancies displayed in John's gospel, the writings of Paul, and other New Testament authors that resulted in the theological controversies and dissensions regarding the relationship of the Son to the Father.

    The concept of a Triune homoousion deity remains the fundamental problem within Christianity, namely, the attempt to reconcile the monotheism of Judaism with its ineffable and invisible deity, and the Hellenised concepts of anthropomorphic deities.

    For subordinationists who saw Jesus as a divinity but one subordinate to God the Father, the concept of a Trinity presented no problems. Various pre Nicene Church Fathers had been subordinationists of various hues and furthermore the subordinationists had a wealth of biblical texts from both the Septuagint and their own Christian writings that appeared to support their view. Arius had written that "their individual realities do not mix with each other and they possess glories of different levels" and that while each had his own function, the Father is "infinitely more splendid in his glories" and is distinct from the Son because He has no beginning".

    The pre-Nicene traditional formulations of Christ as logos therefore perceived him as something less than the Godhead and as there was no precedent for an incarnated logos, the Gospel depictions of Jesus could be taken as they were.

    However, the Nicene Creed that incorporated Jesus fully into the Godhead created a new Christological controversy. Once that formulation was put forward, which contended that Jesus had always been fully God and had existed eternally alongside God the Father and that the Son and the Father shared the same substance (homoousios) and that Jesus had always been part of the Godhead, even throughout his sojourn on earth, it served to raise new questions as to how Jesus could also be human at the same time, as well as, more to the point, exactly how human was he?

    The tendency for speculation produced an entire plethora of different solutions. Hence there were various theories ranging from the Adoptionists, through to Doceticism, stopping off along the way at the views of bishop Apollinarius who postulated that Jesus had a human body but his soul and mind remained divine; and those of bishop Theodore who argued that Jesus had been conceived twice, once in a divine form, and once in a human form, the so-called Two Sons formula.

    Each of these attempted resolutions only served to raise ever more issues. If Jesus was fully man when he suffered was he still man when he performed his miracles? Or was he then acting in his divine capacity? Furthermore, what sort of humanity did he take? Was he Man, prior to the Fall? Man as he is now, lost to sin? Or Man as he would be when redeemed?

    If he was created as a perfect man as some ECFs suggested, then how was Luke 2:52 to be explained? If, as Luke tells us, Jesus increased in stature and wisdom it thereby implied that, at some point Jesus was a less developed human being. Yet if he was created as perfect man how was this possible?

    Prior to his incarnation it was assumed that he was not a man in any way but what happened after his resurrection? Did he revert to just being God? Or did he retain some of his humanity and if so, how much?

    As to the Holy Spirit, the views held among some today were not arrived at until the late 300s and even then they were not completely accepted by all ecclesiastics. The Nicene Creed had asserted "I believe in the Holy Spirit" but nothing had been said of the Spirit having any divine status or being related to either Father or Son in any way.

    It was St Basil and his fellow Cappadocians who incorporated the Holy Spirit as part of the Godhead but with a distinct personality (hypostasis).
    Thankyou

    I looked it up--wiki says:-
    Basil then had to face the growing spread of Arianism. This belief system, which denied that Christ was consubstantial with the Father, was quickly gaining adherents and was seen by many, particularly those in Alexandria most familiar with it, as posing a threat to the unity of the church.[39] Basil entered into connections with the West, and with the help of Athanasius, he tried to overcome its distrustful attitude toward the Homoiousians. The difficulties had been enhanced by bringing in the question as to the essence of the Holy Spirit. Although Basil advocated objectively the consubstantiality of the Holy Spirit with the Father and the Son, he belonged to those, who, faithful to Eastern tradition, would not allow the predicate homoousios to the former; for this he was reproached as early as 371 by the Orthodox zealots among the monks, and Athanasius defended him. He maintained a relationship with Eustathius despite dogmatic differences.

    Why were these people discussing the "question of the essence of the Holy Spirit"? If they needed a Trinity for some reason ---they could have used "The Word" which G of J clearly spells out IS God. Thus word, god, son could have formed an easy trinity?

    Does the Holy Spirit Homo-ousios/Avian-ousios (?) into a Dove?---or use some other process?...or is this process/concept "a mystery" and best ignored?

    What happened to the Holy Ghost? ---apparently some formulations of the Trinity had "Holy Ghost" for the resurrected Jesus, instead of Holy Spirit? Some say it means the same thing---but Holy Spirit is a Dove (God-Dove)---right?

    In G of J---Jesus is called "Lamb of God"---why is "Lamb of God" symbolic and "son of God" literal? ---is this a political choice or misinterpretation over time? (as I understand it---"son of God" also meant King in that era?---but this would have caused political problems for existing "Kings"?)


    U wrote--
    "Prior to his incarnation it was assumed that he was not a man in any way but what happened after his resurrection? Did he revert to just being God? Or did he retain some of his humanity and if so, how much?"
    But ---In (Hellenized?) Christianity, God made man in his image? Therefore, God always has been anthropomorphic? (as in depictions at the Sistine Chapel?)
    Last edited by siam; 06-16-2020, 12:32 AM.

    Leave a comment:


  • rogue06
    replied
    Originally posted by siam View Post
    Do you have any idea/theories why they settled on a "Trinitarian" Godhead? ---and not a dual (God/Son) or a quad (God, Word, Son, Spirit/Ghost/Dove) or even multiples---"Children of God"/God/Son/Dove...etc...etc?

    was it some arbitrary--"three sounds good" type of thing or was there some philosophy/purpose?
    More like it matched up with what Scripture was indicating.

    Leave a comment:


  • Hypatia_Alexandria
    replied
    Originally posted by siam View Post
    Do you have any idea/theories why they settled on a "Trinitarian" Godhead? ---and not a dual (God/Son) or a quad (God, Word, Son, Spirit/Ghost/Dove) or even multiples---"Children of God"/God/Son/Dove...etc...etc?

    was it some arbitrary--"three sounds good" type of thing or was there some philosophy/purpose?
    It needs to be understood that Christianity in its first two and a half centuries was completely fluid. It comprised a number of competing Christian groups that advocated a variety of theologies. Of course all these various theologies were contested and/or condemned by different Christians who held to other theological persuasions. However, it still remains a fact that in those two and a half centuries there was a plethora of different beliefs and a variety Christian scripture circulating.

    The whole issue of the Son’s relationship to the Father and a Triune deity arose from the development of the religion in its early centuries. It was the innate discrepancies displayed in John's gospel, the writings of Paul, and other New Testament authors that resulted in the theological controversies and dissensions regarding the relationship of the Son to the Father.

    The concept of a Triune homoousion deity remains the fundamental problem within Christianity, namely, the attempt to reconcile the monotheism of Judaism with its ineffable and invisible deity, and the Hellenised concepts of anthropomorphic deities.

    For subordinationists who saw Jesus as a divinity but one subordinate to God the Father, the concept of a Trinity presented no problems. Various pre Nicene Church Fathers had been subordinationists of various hues and furthermore the subordinationists had a wealth of biblical texts from both the Septuagint and their own Christian writings that appeared to support their view. Arius had written that "their individual realities do not mix with each other and they possess glories of different levels" and that while each had his own function, the Father is "infinitely more splendid in his glories" and is distinct from the Son because He has no beginning".

    The pre-Nicene traditional formulations of Christ as logos therefore perceived him as something less than the Godhead and as there was no precedent for an incarnated logos, the Gospel depictions of Jesus could be taken as they were.

    However, the Nicene Creed that incorporated Jesus fully into the Godhead created a new Christological controversy. Once that formulation was put forward, which contended that Jesus had always been fully God and had existed eternally alongside God the Father and that the Son and the Father shared the same substance (homoousios) and that Jesus had always been part of the Godhead, even throughout his sojourn on earth, it served to raise new questions as to how Jesus could also be human at the same time, as well as, more to the point, exactly how human was he?

    The tendency for speculation produced an entire plethora of different solutions. Hence there were various theories ranging from the Adoptionists, through to Doceticism, stopping off along the way at the views of bishop Apollinarius who postulated that Jesus had a human body but his soul and mind remained divine; and those of bishop Theodore who argued that Jesus had been conceived twice, once in a divine form, and once in a human form, the so-called Two Sons formula.

    Each of these attempted resolutions only served to raise ever more issues. If Jesus was fully man when he suffered was he still man when he performed his miracles? Or was he then acting in his divine capacity? Furthermore, what sort of humanity did he take? Was he Man, prior to the Fall? Man as he is now, lost to sin? Or Man as he would be when redeemed?

    If he was created as a perfect man as some ECFs suggested, then how was Luke 2:52 to be explained? If, as Luke tells us, Jesus increased in stature and wisdom it thereby implied that, at some point Jesus was a less developed human being. Yet if he was created as perfect man how was this possible?

    Prior to his incarnation it was assumed that he was not a man in any way but what happened after his resurrection? Did he revert to just being God? Or did he retain some of his humanity and if so, how much?

    As to the Holy Spirit, the views held among some today were not arrived at until the late 300s and even then they were not completely accepted by all ecclesiastics. The Nicene Creed had asserted "I believe in the Holy Spirit" but nothing had been said of the Spirit having any divine status or being related to either Father or Son in any way.

    It was St Basil and his fellow Cappadocians who incorporated the Holy Spirit as part of the Godhead but with a distinct personality (hypostasis).

    Leave a comment:

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