As hopefully most of you know, textual traditions for Jeremiah between Masoretic Text and Septuagint are substantially different.
How do you know which one of them represents the original wording penned by Jeremiah?
If liberals cannot generalize from the discrepancies of Lxx-Jeremiah and MS-Jeremiah that scribes likely corrupted the intent of the original bible authors, does fairness require that conservatives then cannot generalize from the similarities between MS-Isaiah and Dss-Isaiah that scribes copied the OT text with exacting accuracy?
How do you know which one of them represents the original wording penned by Jeremiah?
If liberals cannot generalize from the discrepancies of Lxx-Jeremiah and MS-Jeremiah that scribes likely corrupted the intent of the original bible authors, does fairness require that conservatives then cannot generalize from the similarities between MS-Isaiah and Dss-Isaiah that scribes copied the OT text with exacting accuracy?
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