Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria
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You are putting the grammatical wagon before the horse. A preconception is conceived in advance of experience, not as a result of experience.
What evidence? You likewise have provided [on occasion] links to papers and/or sections from books. What is that but advancing "other peoples opinions and speculations"?
It needs more than a few [in my opinion polemical tracts] published privately on Amazon.
And why then was he going there "from Nazareth"?
They probably remained in Bethlehem because, as Luke states, it was Joseph's hometown.
No it was not
because he was descended from the house and family of David.Luke
4 Joseph also went up from Galilee, from the city of Nazareth, to Judea, to the city of David which is called Bethlehem, because he was of the house and family of David,
5 in order to register along with Mary, who was engaged to him, and was with child.
What is known of Koine Greek writing conventions, what Matthew has to say, and what is known from history combine to show that Joseph's hometown was Bethlehem.
Joseph went to his own city, Bethlehem. It was his own city (very loosely defined) because he was a descendant of David. In short, Bethlehem was not only his own city, it was also his ancestral city.
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