The fallacy is to think that:
1. God is male, and therefore must be sexually dimorphic;
2. the grammatical gender of a noun or pronoun, means that, what it denotes, must therefore be of the corresponding biological sex.
"The man Christ Jesus" is called "our wisdom", our *sophia*, in NT Greek. *Sophia* is a noun of the feminine grammatical gender. it does not follow that Jesus Christ is therefore female. He wasn't.
One cannot validly argue from the gender of a noun, to the conclusion that what it denotes, must therefore be of the corresponding sex. Because gender and sex have nothing in common. Gender is a grammatical quality, but sex is a quality of certain biological beings - in this case, human mammals. Gender and biology are entirely different entities; neither is a reliable guide to the other. Grammar and biology are entirely different fields of study, and to use terms from either within the other as though such usage were self-evidently valid, is asking for trouble and confusion.
Some NT Greek:
English translation first:
"…29 so that no one may boast in His presence. 30 It is because of Him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdomfrom God:our righteousness, holiness, and redemption. 31Therefore, as it is written: “Let him who boasts boast in the Lord.”…"
English translations here: https://biblehub.com/1_corinthians/1-30.htm
The 3 nouns in purple are all feminine - yet they are all qualities of Jesus Christ.
Now for the Greek:
....ἐξ αὐτοῦ δὲ ὑμεῖς ἐστὲ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, ὃς ἐγενήθη σοφία ἡμῖν ἀπὸ θεοῦ, δικαιοσύνη τε καὶ ἁγιασμὸς καὶ ἀπολύτρωσις...
See Greek Texts on this page for the various editions of the verse: https://biblehub.com/text/1_corinthians/1-30.htm
Wisdom, righteousness, redemption, are all feminine nouns in Greek; holiness [better: sanctification] is masculine.
1. God is male, and therefore must be sexually dimorphic;
2. the grammatical gender of a noun or pronoun, means that, what it denotes, must therefore be of the corresponding biological sex.
"The man Christ Jesus" is called "our wisdom", our *sophia*, in NT Greek. *Sophia* is a noun of the feminine grammatical gender. it does not follow that Jesus Christ is therefore female. He wasn't.
One cannot validly argue from the gender of a noun, to the conclusion that what it denotes, must therefore be of the corresponding sex. Because gender and sex have nothing in common. Gender is a grammatical quality, but sex is a quality of certain biological beings - in this case, human mammals. Gender and biology are entirely different entities; neither is a reliable guide to the other. Grammar and biology are entirely different fields of study, and to use terms from either within the other as though such usage were self-evidently valid, is asking for trouble and confusion.
Some NT Greek:
English translation first:
"…29 so that no one may boast in His presence. 30 It is because of Him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdomfrom God:our righteousness, holiness, and redemption. 31Therefore, as it is written: “Let him who boasts boast in the Lord.”…"
English translations here: https://biblehub.com/1_corinthians/1-30.htm
The 3 nouns in purple are all feminine - yet they are all qualities of Jesus Christ.
Now for the Greek:
....ἐξ αὐτοῦ δὲ ὑμεῖς ἐστὲ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, ὃς ἐγενήθη σοφία ἡμῖν ἀπὸ θεοῦ, δικαιοσύνη τε καὶ ἁγιασμὸς καὶ ἀπολύτρωσις...
See Greek Texts on this page for the various editions of the verse: https://biblehub.com/text/1_corinthians/1-30.htm
Wisdom, righteousness, redemption, are all feminine nouns in Greek; holiness [better: sanctification] is masculine.
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