I have a question for all you non-open theists. How is it that in Matthew 26, we see Jesus, the incarnate Son of God, the one "human" who should know exactly how God operates, what God knows and what should be "settled" in the future, ask if it's "possible" for God to change his mind:
I mean, even OVT's believe it's clear that scriptural prophecies concerning the life and death of Jesus Christ were foreordained and foreknown long before it came to pass. Isn't it somewhat surprising to you EDF proponents that in this passage Jesus very clearly pleads with the Father to change his plan at the last minute—“if it is possible.” Now, in hindsight, we know that Jesus’ request couldn't be granted, but what seems to me to be significant, is the very fact that Jesus makes the request at all. I mean, Jesus obviously knew the prophecies concerning himself because he had been teaching his disciples for 3 1/2 years that these same prophecies foretold that he was to be crucified (Matt. 12:40; 16:21; John 2:19). Yet here we see Jesus, asking God the Father to change this "foreordained" and "foreknown" plan “if it is possible.” How does Jesus’ request even make sense if we assume that Jesus believed that the future was exhaustively settled in God’s mind and/or that God’s plans were unalterable. It seems to me that his prayer reveals that even in THE main tenet of the Christian faith, Jesus truly believed there was an outside chance that his Father might still change his mind.
Originally posted by Matt 26:39 NASB
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