Originally posted by eustilou
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This is the forum to discuss the spectrum of views within Christianity on God's foreknowledge and election such as Calvinism, Arminianism, Molinism, Open Theism, Process Theism, Restrictivism, and Inclusivism, Christian Universalism and what these all are about anyway. Who is saved and when is/was their salvation certain? How does God exercise His sovereignty and how powerful is He? Is God timeless and immutable? Does a triune God help better understand God's love for mankind?
While this area is for the discussion of these doctrines within historic Christianity, all theists interested in discussing these areas within the presuppositions of and respect for the Christian framework are welcome to participate here. This is not the area for debate between nontheists and theists, additionally, there may be some topics that within the Moderator's discretion fall so outside the bounds of mainstream evangelical doctrine that may be more appropriately placed within Comparative Religions 101 Nontheists seeking only theistic participation only in a manner that does not seek to undermine the faith of others are also welcome - but we ask that Moderator approval be obtained beforehand.
Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 or General Theistics 101 forum without such restrictions. Theists who wish to discuss these issues outside the parameters of orthodox Christian doctrine are invited to Unorthodox Theology 201.
Remember, our forum rules apply here as well. If you haven't read them now would be a good time.
Forum Rules: Here
While this area is for the discussion of these doctrines within historic Christianity, all theists interested in discussing these areas within the presuppositions of and respect for the Christian framework are welcome to participate here. This is not the area for debate between nontheists and theists, additionally, there may be some topics that within the Moderator's discretion fall so outside the bounds of mainstream evangelical doctrine that may be more appropriately placed within Comparative Religions 101 Nontheists seeking only theistic participation only in a manner that does not seek to undermine the faith of others are also welcome - but we ask that Moderator approval be obtained beforehand.
Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 or General Theistics 101 forum without such restrictions. Theists who wish to discuss these issues outside the parameters of orthodox Christian doctrine are invited to Unorthodox Theology 201.
Remember, our forum rules apply here as well. If you haven't read them now would be a good time.
Forum Rules: Here
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Understanding the value of Jesus' sacrifice
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Originally posted by 37818 View PostBefore the incarnation the verse does not apply. Since Son of God was not always a human. After the incarnation, death, burial, resurrection and ascension in the presence of God for us, as an immortal human, then that verse applies. God the Father didn't change. The Word who had two natures, one being "with God" something other than God, and "was God." How the Word was "with God" changed.
Hebrews says Jesus is the same, not the Word.
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Originally posted by eustilou View PostScratch that...
Jesus is the same yesterday today and forever (Heb. 13:5)
In the Father there is no variation or shifting shadw (Jam. 1:17)Last edited by 37818; 01-07-2015, 08:10 PM.
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Originally posted by eustilou View Post
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Originally posted by apostoli View PostNature is a common mistranslation of physis. For instance in the theology of Chalcedon, Physis explains the duology of Christ...how he is both fully God & Fully man ie: Jesus demonstarated (had activity) as fully man and demonstrated (had activity) as fully God (Jn 12:45; 14:5-7; Jn 20;28).
Nb: ousia & physis are closely related terms. Imu, ousia is the unsubstantiated speculation upon a thing, whereas physis is evidenced...hence its relationship to the idea of activity...The idea "nature" dictates activity...as opposed to ousia which dictates an accumulation of properties/attributes/wealth...
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Originally posted by eustilou View PostLooking in Strong's dictionary, partakers = sharers, and nature = nature.
I see no indication in Strong's dictionary that nature = activity.
Nb: ousia & physis are closely related terms. Imu, ousia is the unsubstantiated speculation upon a thing, whereas physis is evidenced...hence its relationship to the idea of activity...The idea "nature" dictates activity...as opposed to ousia which dictates an accumulation of properties/attributes/wealth...Last edited by apostoli; 12-31-2014, 05:08 AM.
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Originally posted by apostoli View PostThere is no mention of anyone becoming endowed by a God like substantiality. Also notice the word "partakers". Also notice the word "nature" = "physis" = "activity". Imu, we become participants in the divine will, activitating it.
I see no indication in Strong's dictionary that nature = activity.
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Originally posted by PentecostYou are putting words to a belief I've contemplated, but find rather embarrassing. It's true that we are becoming more like God, but I am not sure it would be fair to say we can "become" God in any meaningful sense. I know Eastern Orthodoxy has some sort of concept of Theosis, so I'd be thankful if OBP came in and shared about this mystery.
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Originally posted by eustilouWhat did it cost God to purchase us?Originally posted by apostoliAssuming you mean God "the Father", then I would suggest, He gave up his supremacy. Have a look at the last chapter of Revelation wherein we lean than God and the Lamb share the same throne.
To support my position I'll quote saint Paul "For he (God the Father) hath put all things under his (the Son) feet. But when he (God the Father) saith all things are put under him (the Son), it is manifest that he (God the Father) is excepted, which did put all things under him (the Son)". (1 Cor 15:27).
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Another matter to concern us: never in the history of Nicene Theology has it been advocated that the Father, Son and Spirit are one hypostasis, the teaching has always been there are three hypostases, who are homoousius (consubstantial) = one God united in ousia/physes (substantiality/activity) but three distinct hypostases (near guess in an English translation = persons).Last edited by apostoli; 12-29-2014, 11:26 PM.
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Originally posted by eustilou View PostI think I got it. How does the following sound?
The trinity changed after Jesus was born.
Before, it was Father, Word and Holy Spirit. After Christ was given, it became Father, Word in human (resurrected/glorified) body and Holy Spirit.
Humanity is part of the trinity now... allowing us to be partakers of God's divine nature through Christ.
The Word becoming flesh created a human interface to the trinity: Christ... the door... through which we can be hidden in God through Christ.
I'm wondering whether the interaction dynamic between the Father and the Son changed forever due to the Word being human and having a human body now.
I'm wondering whether Christ having a body diminishes or changes in any way how the Father relates to or interacts with the Son.
For example, a father and son discover a colony of ants that is about to get wiped out by an incoming wave. They need to be told quickly to move to higher ground, but the only way to communicate that is for the son to become one of the ants. Because the father loves the ants so much, the son becomes an ant and some of the ants listen to the son's message and move to higher ground before the wave hits. Now, the son ascends back to the father, but remains in the form of an ant... forever changing the interaction dynamic between the father and the son. The son is still of human nature with all its reasoning capacity and still has all power and authority of a human, but will remain an ant forever.
Could this be what God "lost" or gave up in order to save us?
Do my thoughts have any merit, or am I totally off base?
I don't want to minimize the suffering, shed blood and death of Christ. Those had their costs also.
My understanding focuses on the "bondage" and "slavery" aspect, what did the Father lose? I don't know. Christ is Victorious, and as we partake in that Victory, so too does the Father and Spirit rejoice in it, fore did not the Father will it first, and did not the Spirit enable and empower throughout? God is three people. Not God are three people, nor God is one person, but God is three people. A singular and a plural. God as God lost nothing. The Father may have lost something to the Son, as a human father loses control of his own son. Or perhaps the Spirit gained in someway? I think it is a mystery.
But really, who did God pay? Himself? I don't think The Father sent the Son to appease the Father's wrath. I know many disagree but that sounds silly to me. If God payed anyone else, and didn't recoup the cost then God failed and that isn't possible. So I say that The Father lost His Son, and the Son lost His life, the fact that both were restored should give he hope that we will be restored.
I am sorry if this seems scatterbrained. I'm a little light headed but wanted to respond to you right now.
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Originally posted by eustilou View PostWhat does it mean that God "gave" Jesus?
The trinity changed after Jesus was born.
Before, it was Father, Word and Holy Spirit. After Christ was given, it became Father, Word in human (resurrected/glorified) body and Holy Spirit.
Humanity is part of the trinity now... allowing us to be partakers of God's divine nature through Christ.
The Word becoming flesh created a human interface to the trinity: Christ... the door... through which we can be hidden in God through Christ.
I'm wondering whether the interaction dynamic between the Father and the Son changed forever due to the Word being human and having a human body now.
I'm wondering whether Christ having a body diminishes or changes in any way how the Father relates to or interacts with the Son.
For example, a father and son discover a colony of ants that is about to get wiped out by an incoming wave. They need to be told quickly to move to higher ground, but the only way to communicate that is for the son to become one of the ants. Because the father loves the ants so much, the son becomes an ant and some of the ants listen to the son's message and move to higher ground before the wave hits. Now, the son ascends back to the father, but remains in the form of an ant... forever changing the interaction dynamic between the father and the son. The son is still of human nature with all its reasoning capacity and still has all power and authority of a human, but will remain an ant forever.
Could this be what God "lost" or gave up in order to save us?
Do my thoughts have any merit, or am I totally off base?
I don't want to minimize the suffering, shed blood and death of Christ. Those had their costs also.
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Originally posted by eustilou View PostWhat did it cost God to purchase us?
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Originally posted by Truthseeker View PostI suspect whatever answers you get in this thread will all prove to be inadequate at best, because there are mysteries we may never understand.
But lately I've become quite unsatisfied at how little I appreciate Christ's sacrifice... and the questions mentioned above are what I found at the bottom of my heart.
Just asking the questions and talking about them is helping me appreciate more the work that He did.
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