Originally posted by phat8594
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This is the forum to discuss the spectrum of views within Christianity on God's foreknowledge and election such as Calvinism, Arminianism, Molinism, Open Theism, Process Theism, Restrictivism, and Inclusivism, Christian Universalism and what these all are about anyway. Who is saved and when is/was their salvation certain? How does God exercise His sovereignty and how powerful is He? Is God timeless and immutable? Does a triune God help better understand God's love for mankind?
While this area is for the discussion of these doctrines within historic Christianity, all theists interested in discussing these areas within the presuppositions of and respect for the Christian framework are welcome to participate here. This is not the area for debate between nontheists and theists, additionally, there may be some topics that within the Moderator's discretion fall so outside the bounds of mainstream evangelical doctrine that may be more appropriately placed within Comparative Religions 101 Nontheists seeking only theistic participation only in a manner that does not seek to undermine the faith of others are also welcome - but we ask that Moderator approval be obtained beforehand.
Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 or General Theistics 101 forum without such restrictions. Theists who wish to discuss these issues outside the parameters of orthodox Christian doctrine are invited to Unorthodox Theology 201.
Remember, our forum rules apply here as well. If you haven't read them now would be a good time.
Forum Rules: Here
While this area is for the discussion of these doctrines within historic Christianity, all theists interested in discussing these areas within the presuppositions of and respect for the Christian framework are welcome to participate here. This is not the area for debate between nontheists and theists, additionally, there may be some topics that within the Moderator's discretion fall so outside the bounds of mainstream evangelical doctrine that may be more appropriately placed within Comparative Religions 101 Nontheists seeking only theistic participation only in a manner that does not seek to undermine the faith of others are also welcome - but we ask that Moderator approval be obtained beforehand.
Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 or General Theistics 101 forum without such restrictions. Theists who wish to discuss these issues outside the parameters of orthodox Christian doctrine are invited to Unorthodox Theology 201.
Remember, our forum rules apply here as well. If you haven't read them now would be a good time.
Forum Rules: Here
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Merits/Demerits of Reformed Theology VS. Jehovas Wittnesses.
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Originally posted by dacristoy View PostSo, have we in effect found another version of the unpardonable sin. What you have in effect done is cast Jehovah’s Witnesses’ outside the possibility of salvation. Reformed theology misrepresent the nature, character and love of God to the point where God is no longer recognizable as presented in scripture. According to their deterministic views God caused Adam to sin, and has also been the cause of every sin committed subsequently... That would also lay the J W"s view of the deity of Christ straightway at the feet of God.
...and I kinda getting the picture thats what you would like to try to do ?“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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Originally posted by dacristoy View PostJohn 3:16King James Version (KJV)
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
OK, let's take a look at your rendition to see if it had been translated your way, just how much sense would it make...
John 3:16King James Version (KJV)
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that <whosoever>all the believing ones believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Makes no sense huh, now you need to fix the rest of the passage to receive your unique interpretation.
In essense John is trying to convey the idea that those that believe will have eternal life. John 3:16 is not meant to be a commentary on the extent of who will be save per se. The immediate context is, just like those during the time of Moses who looked upon the serpent will be saved, so will it be for those that look to the Son.“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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Originally posted by dacristoy View PostImmediate context takes precedent over extended context. Your conclusion makes no sense...“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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Originally posted by phat8594 View PostA big issue is, of course, that immediate context should dictate prior to other Biblical references. And it should also be noted that Revelation was written by John as opposed to Paul.
Although the Jews saw themselves as the 'chosen' people who merely were the recipients of God's grace and therefore salvation, Paul actually spends a good part of Romans dismantling this very nonsense. With that in mind, you can't reinterpret Paul's writings to be based on the very perspective he was speaking against and trying to correct.
In other words, although historical context is important, we can't toss out literary context (historical background gives the setting, but can't be solely relied upon to determine the meaning)
What you say about Paul is exactly the point that I was making. When Paul says in Romans 2 that " God does not show favoritism " Arminians mainly like to view this as a merely individual thing. When the context is that he is merely trying to express that God does not show favoritism by His including of the Gentiles in salvation. Pauls argument in the beginning chapters of Romans are to show that both Jews and Gentiles are just as sinful and in need of salvation as well.“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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Originally posted by phat8594 View PostA big issue is, of course, that immediate context should dictate prior to other Biblical references. And it should also be noted that Revelation was written by John as opposed to Paul.“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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Originally posted by phat8594 View PostYep. It is interesting how I have had multiple conversations lately with someone who referred to 'context' - yet when pressed to look at the immediate context of a passage, either didn't know what to do or didn't want to. It seems that many people don't really understand the what context actually is.
I am all for the context of a passage, but I don't ignore things like grammar and historical context. Our scriptures were not written in english, so sometimes we have to look at some nuances to really get at the heart of the text.“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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Originally posted by phat8594 View PostIn other words, although historical context is important, we can't toss out literary context (historical background gives the setting, but can't be solely relied upon to determine the meaning)“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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dacristoy,
1 John 5:1, "Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . ."
Talking to a JW, the "Whosoever" are only the 144,000. Not the rank and file JW.
Reading a Catholic apologetics site, the "Whosoever" are only the baptized.
According to Calvinism the "Whosoever" are only God's elect. (Which happens to be true, and I'm not a Calvinist. My viewpoint is nevertheless Calvinistic on only two points of the T.U.L.I.P., the T and P.)
2 John 9, "Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son." ( Here the "Whosoever" that "abideth not in the doctrine of Christ" are not the elect.)Last edited by 37818; 09-27-2014, 10:53 PM.. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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Originally posted by Sentient 6 View PostSure, and I agree. But lets look at Jesus when he was talking to Nicodemus. When the author talks about the " world " what is more likely meant ? Every single person that has ever lived, or will live ? Or was he simply trying to say that Gentiles will be part of the plan ?
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Originally posted by Sentient 6 View PostSure, and I agree. But lets look at Jesus when he was talking to Nicodemus. When the author talks about the " world " what is more likely meant ? Every single person that has ever lived, or will live ? Or was he simply trying to say that Gentiles will be part of the plan ?
Acts 10:34
Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:In Context | Full Chapter | Other Translations
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Originally posted by 37818 View Postdacristoy,
1 John 5:1, "Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . ."
Talking to a JW, the "Whosoever" are only the 144,000. Not the rank and file JW.
Reading a Catholic apologetics site, the "Whosoever" are only the baptized.
According to Calvinism the "Whosoever" are only God's elect. (Which happens to be true, and I'm not a Calvinist. My viewpoint is nevertheless Calvinistic on only two points of the T.U.L.I.P., the T and P.)
2 John 9, "Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son." ( Here the "Whosoever" that "abideth not in the doctrine of Christ" are not the elect.)
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Originally posted by 37818 View Postdacristoy,
1 John 5:1, "Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . ."
Talking to a JW, the "Whosoever" are only the 144,000. Not the rank and file JW.
Reading a Catholic apologetics site, the "Whosoever" are only the baptized.
According to Calvinism the "Whosoever" are only God's elect. (Which happens to be true, and I'm not a Calvinist. My viewpoint is nevertheless Calvinistic on only two points of the T.U.L.I.P., the T and P.)
2 John 9, "Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son." ( Here the "Whosoever" that "abideth not in the doctrine of Christ" are not the elect.)
Saved by Grace through faith…. If you accept the Calvinistic belief of election, you must accept it as is, with all of its consequences and ramifications… Anything less is not Calvinistic… Even the worst lies must be mixed with a bit of truth mixed in to establish believability
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Originally posted by Sentient 6 View PostSure, and I agree. But lets look at Jesus when he was talking to Nicodemus. When the author talks about the " world " what is more likely meant ? Every single person that has ever lived, or will live ? Or was he simply trying to say that Gentiles will be part of the plan ?
The point is not to show the inclusion of the gentiles in John 3. In fact, in context that seems to completely miss the point. Rather, as is consistent with the rest of Yohanine literature, world is referring to literally the 'world'. That world includes everything - the broken system, broken people, the broken planet. IOW, God loves His creation -- so much so that He sent His only begotten Son.
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Originally posted by dacristoy View PostThe word "world" is most accurately used as a non exclusionary phrase. It does not exclude anybody, that distinction is made above our understanding.“Every promise of Scripture is a writing of God, which may be pleaded before Him with this reasonable request, ‘Do as Thou hast said.’ The Heavenly Father will not break His Word to His own child.”― Charles H. Spurgeon
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