As well as Paul giving instructions to the unmarried about whom they can marry. IME a divorced person is unmarried, ergo one who divorces for the proper reason is allowed to remarry. And I think infidelity is the only legit reason for divorce to be permitted.
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While this area is for the discussion of these doctrines within historic Christianity, all theists interested in discussing these areas within the presuppositions of and respect for the Christian framework are welcome to participate here. This is not the area for debate between nontheists and theists, additionally, there may be some topics that within the Moderator's discretion fall so outside the bounds of mainstream evangelical doctrine that may be more appropriately placed within Comparative Religions 101 Nontheists seeking only theistic participation only in a manner that does not seek to undermine the faith of others are also welcome - but we ask that Moderator approval be obtained beforehand.
Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 or General Theistics 101 forum without such restrictions. Theists who wish to discuss these issues outside the parameters of orthodox Christian doctrine are invited to Unorthodox Theology 201.
Remember, our forum rules apply here as well. If you haven't read them now would be a good time.
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Does the "except clause" of Matthew 19:9 allow divorce and remarriage?
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Originally posted by Sparko View Post
You can come up with as many overly convoluted examples as you want, but Jesus clearly said that you are allowed to divorce your wife if she commits infidelity/fornication. And there is nothing that says that the man cannot remarry after he does that. You should not add to the scripture Dave.
9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
The "except for sexual immorality" is a parenthetic exemption from the statement: 9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife ... and marries another woman commits adultery.”
So if she commits sexual immorality then that negates the law that he cannot divorce and remarry.
1. Man divorces wife for some other reason - wrong. If he remarries then he commits adultery.
2. Man divorces wife for infidelity - allowed. If he remarries he does not commit adultery.
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Originally posted by Dave L View Post
But.... Jesus said the man who married the innocently divorced woman committed adultery even though her husband committed adultery. The except clause does not work in your case.
Most churches today promote adultery.
I "tolerate" adultery, in that I have an adulterous couple attending my Church. I could pitch a hissy and run them off, or I could continue preaching to them, hoping they accept Christ as their Savior.
You seem to be the kind of guy who insists on cleaning his fish before he catches them, Dave.
The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by Dave L View Post
But.... Jesus said the man who married the innocently divorced woman committed adultery even though her husband committed adultery. The except clause does not work in your case. Most churches today promote adultery.
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
There is nothing about her being innocent there. What are you talking about.
If Jesus wanted to say that anyone who divorces for any reason and remarries is committing adultery, they he would not have bothered to mention an exception, Dave.
He would simply have said: Whosoever shall put away his wife, and shall marry another, committeth adultery.
The fact that he added the exception means that if someone does divorce and remarries for any reason except fornication is committing adultery. The corollary is that if they do divorce for fornication then they CAN remarry (at least the innocent party can)
It's that simple.Last edited by Sparko; 01-13-2022, 09:22 AM.
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Originally posted by Sparko View Post
Where? post the verse about "the innocently divorced woman committed adultery"
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
There is nothing about her being innocent there. What are you talking about.
If Jesus wanted to say that anyone who divorces for any reason and remarries is committing adultery, they he would not have bothered to mention an exception, Dave.
He would simply have said: Whosoever shall put away his wife, and shall marry another, committeth adultery.
The fact that he added the exception means that if someone does divorce and remarries for any reason except fornication is committing adultery. The corollary is that if they do divorce for fornication then they CAN remarry.
It's that simple.
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Originally posted by Dave L View Post
“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” Matthew 19:9 (KJV 1900) She was divorced from an adulterous husband. No except clause in this case.That's what
- She
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Originally posted by Dave L View Post
“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” Matthew 19:9 (KJV 1900) She was divorced from an adulterous husband. No except clause in this case.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by Dave L View Post
“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” Matthew 19:9 (KJV 1900) She was divorced from an adulterous husband. No except clause in this case.
The woman above is the one who committed the fornication. That's why her husband "put her away"
Learn to read.
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Originally posted by Sparko View Post
Well now I know why you are so wrong on your theology. You can't read.
The woman above is the one who committed the fornication. That's why her husband "put her away"
Learn to read.
Are you divorced and remarried?
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Alice cheats on Bob with Danny. They have a divorce. Bob can go get remarried to Carol because he didn't cheat. But if Bob was the one to break the covenant and Alice didn't, then Alice would be the one who could remarry. Don't know what happens if both cheat. Carol marries Danny?If it weren't for the Resurrection of Jesus, we'd all be in DEEP TROUBLE!
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Originally posted by Dave L View Post
“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication (= death by stoning), and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” Matthew 19:9 (KJV 1900)
Are you divorced and remarried?
And no, I am not married, nor an adulterer.
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Originally posted by Dave L View Post
“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication (= death by stoning), and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” Matthew 19:9 (KJV 1900)
Are you divorced and remarried?
Yet another mark of a cultist.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Here's the issue in this post.
Husband (1) commits adultery when he divorced his innocent wife and married wife (2).
The except clause did not work because his wife would have been stoned to death for adultery under Mosaic Law had she been guilty. This would have allowed for his remarriage.
But in this case, the innocent divorced wife also commits adultery along with the man, husband (2) when they marry. The solution?
“So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.” Romans 7:3 (KJV 1900)
A bigger issue.....
This was Old Covenant Law that God replaced with the New Covenant.
The New Covenant does not have a provision for Christian divorce or remarriage.
Those who divorce under pagan law are confirmed in that state of unforgiveness.Last edited by Dave L; 01-14-2022, 08:16 AM.
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Originally posted by Dave L View PostHere's the issue in this post.
Husband (1) commits adultery when he divorced his innocent wife and married wife (2).
The except clause did not work because his wife would have been stoned to death for adultery under Mosaic Law had she been guilty. This would have allowed for his remarriage.
But in this case, the innocent divorced wife also commits adultery along with the man, husband (2) when they marry. The solution?
“So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.” Romans 7:3 (KJV 1900)
A bigger issue.....
This was Old Covenant Law that God replaced with the New Covenant.
The New Covenant does not have a provision for divorce or remarriage.
This is akin to the Church of Christ arguing that there is no provision in the New Testament for musical instruments, therefore, only unaccompanied vocal music is allowed.
The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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