3 Resurrections There is actually not a single scripture that teaches a translation-type of change for the bodies of LIVING believers when Christ returns. Only a change for the bodies of DEAD believers in a resurrection to incorruptibility.
For preterists who believe Jesus "came" in 70 AD at the end of the first Roman/Jewish war after a protracted siege, why would Jesus describe "that day and hour" as people going about their normal business like eating and drinking (activities much curtailed during a protracted siege), marrying, harvesting and preparing food?
At one point they destroyed the food stocks in the city, a drastic measure thought to have been undertaken perhaps in order to enlist a merciful God's intervention on behalf of the besieged Jews, or as a stratagem to make the defenders more desperate, supposing that was necessary in order to repel the Roman army
If the food stocks had been destroyed, what would the "men" be collecting and the "women" be grinding/preparing? Also, if those who had "already been translated" were the only people raptured, why would immortal people be collecting and preparing food they do not require for sustenance? Also, if they had glorified like Jesus already, even if they were collecting and preparing food for those who were still mortal, couldn't they break the laws of physics as Jesus did by collecting and preparing the food at superspeeds and by translating at will? Why would Jesus describe a translation event as unexpected amongst people who could translate at will already?
Also, wouldn't believers have been able to guesstimate the rapture if Jesus and the apostles had taught them that judgment on Jerusalem represented His "coming?"
I did not post this in her already existing thread because it includes questions meant not only for her and because I did not want her to accuse me of "going off topic" whenever I posed questions she couldn't answer.
Comment