A question about Reformed doctrine

[lee_merrill]

"Whatever does not proceed from faith is sin." (Rom. 14:23) So what unbelievers do, is inherently sinful. See also Romans 3:9-18...

Blessings,
Lee

[Thoughtful Monk]

Wikipedia repeats the general consensus regarding Calvin's thought. I haven't found anyone disagreeing with the assessment.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_depravity

John Calvin used terms like "total depravity" to mean that, despite the ability of people to outwardly uphold the law, there remained an inward distortion which makes all human actions displeasing to God, whether or not they are outwardly good or bad.^[13] Even after regeneration, every human action is mixed with evil.

Makes sense to me and sounds right. Thanks.

[Rushing Jaws]

Wikipedia repeats the general consensus regarding Calvin's thought. I haven't found anyone disagreeing with the assessment.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_depravity

John Calvin used terms like "total depravity" to mean that, despite the ability of people to outwardly uphold the law, there remained an inward distortion which makes all human actions displeasing to God, whether or not they are outwardly good or bad.^[13] Even after regeneration, every human action is mixed with evil.

That’s helpful. Thanks.

[tabibito]

Wikipedia repeats the general consensus regarding Calvin's thought. I haven't found anyone disagreeing with the assessment.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_depravity

John Calvin used terms like "total depravity" to mean that, despite the ability of people to outwardly uphold the law, there remained an inward distortion which makes all human actions displeasing to God, whether or not they are outwardly good or bad.^[13] Even after regeneration, every human action is mixed with evil.

[Rushing Jaws]

STM there is an ambiguity in TULIP:

If we take God’s Righteousness as the Standard for what is righteous - which of the following is the Calvinist doctrine - that:

a. the works of the unjustified are *positively sinful* - even when the unjustified do such things as are described in Matt. 25.31-40 ?

or

b. the seemingly good works of the unjustified are indeed good according to the moral law - but, though good in that manner, are even so radically insufficient to be truly good when measured by the perfect Righteousness of God, seeing as God is alone truly, and unqualifiedly, Good & Righteous ?

IOW, is the doctrine of Total Depravity saying that man is depraved in an absolute, or a relative, sense ?

Do men fall short of the righteousness of God because their goodness, however genuine, by God’s Common Grace, it may be, is imperfect, and thus, not good enough - or, because they are positively evil ?

Obviously everyone needs to be justified by the grace of God, regardless of his previous character; that is not in question.