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Discussion on matters of general mainstream evangelical Christian theology that do not fit within Theology 201. Have some spiritual gifts ceased today? Is the KJV the only viable translation for the church today? In what sense are the books of the bible inspired and what are those books? Church government? Modern day prophets and apostles?

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Biblical inerrancy vs Biblical errancey.

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  • Biblical inerrancy vs Biblical errancey.

    Biblical inerrancy has to do with God's word.

    Biblical errancy has to do with interpretation, translation, and known variants in the manuscript evidence.
    . . . the Gospel of Christ, for it is [the] power of God to salvation to every [one] believing, . . . -- Romans 1:16.

    . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3, 4.

    Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1.

  • #2
    Originally posted by 37818 View Post
    Biblical inerrancy has to do with God's word.

    Biblical errancy has to do with interpretation, translation, and known variants in the manuscript evidence.
    If you're wanting a discussion on this, it would be better to define what you mean by these terms, rather than what they "have to do with".
    "Neighbor, how long has it been since you’ve had a big, thick, steaming bowl of Wolf Brand Chili?”

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    • #3
      I think 37818 is proposing that the Bible is God's Word and therefore inerrant. Any errors are due to faulty interpretation and/or transmission of the text (translation being an exercise in interpretation).
      Enter the Church and wash away your sins. For here there is a hospital and not a court of law. Do not be ashamed to enter the Church; be ashamed when you sin, but not when you repent. – St. John Chrysostom

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      I recommend you do not try too hard and ...research as little as possible. Such weighty things give me a headache. - Shunyadragon, Baha'i apologist

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      • #4
        Originally posted by One Bad Pig View Post
        I think 37818 is proposing that the Bible is God's Word and therefore inerrant. Any errors are due to faulty interpretation and/or transmission of the text (translation being an exercise in interpretation).
        Hmm. That sounds about right. Am I the only one who has a hard time deciphering a lot of 37818's posts? I don't mean that to be mean or anything. Maybe its just me.

        Comment


        • #5
          So, yes, these are good rough definitions. And what about them?
          "I am not angered that the Moral Majority boys campaign against abortion. I am angry when the same men who say, "Save OUR children" bellow "Build more and bigger bombers." That's right! Blast the children in other nations into eternity, or limbless misery as they lay crippled from "OUR" bombers! This does not jell." - Leonard Ravenhill

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          • #6
            Originally posted by Adrift View Post
            Hmm. That sounds about right. Am I the only one who has a hard time deciphering a lot of 37818's posts? I don't mean that to be mean or anything. Maybe its just me.
            I wasn't sure where he was going with it.
            "Neighbor, how long has it been since you’ve had a big, thick, steaming bowl of Wolf Brand Chili?”

            Comment


            • #7
              Originally posted by Adrift View Post
              Hmm. That sounds about right. Am I the only one who has a hard time deciphering a lot of 37818's posts? I don't mean that to be mean or anything. Maybe its just me.
              Well they tend to be on the short side. About all I know of him is that he's calvinisticish.

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              • #8
                Originally posted by 37818 View Post
                Biblical inerrancy has to do with God's word.

                Biblical errancy has to do with interpretation, translation, and known variants in the manuscript evidence.
                The reason I asked for definitions is because some inerrantists (KJOnliests?) claim that inerrancy means that God has protected the translation process through whatever version or timeframe -- others, like me, claim that the Bible is inerrant in its original manuscripts, which takes into account what you call "errancy".

                So, it really boils down to what version of inerrancy it is to which you're referring.
                "Neighbor, how long has it been since you’ve had a big, thick, steaming bowl of Wolf Brand Chili?”

                Comment


                • #9
                  I have always gone with the same "inerrant in the original manuscripts" definition/approach. If it is required to believe that each and every word written in the KJV (or any other specific translation) I must admit that I am an errantist (is that even a word?). To be honest I have yet to find any meaningful difference between any two translations - differences in the message that is.
                  Micah 6:8 He has told you, O man, what is good; and what does the LORD require of you but to do justice, and to love kindness, and to walk humbly with your God?

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                  • #10
                    Originally posted by Cow Poke View Post
                    If you're wanting a discussion on this, it would be better to define what you mean by these terms, rather than what they "have to do with".
                    God's word is inerrant. The Bible is inerrant in its original autographs, being the written word of God.
                    Human interpreters, translations and copies are not what is inerrant. And this human error is the source of all Biblical errancy. The written word of God does not cease being God's word on account of human errors. What is in error is not God's word.

                    So claims of Biblical errancy without exception, can be shown to be issues of interpretation, translation, and known textual variants.
                    . . . the Gospel of Christ, for it is [the] power of God to salvation to every [one] believing, . . . -- Romans 1:16.

                    . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3, 4.

                    Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1.

                    Comment


                    • #11
                      Originally posted by 37818 View Post
                      God's word is inerrant. The Bible is inerrant in its original autographs, being the written word of God.
                      Human interpreters, translations and copies are not what is inerrant. And this human error is the source of all Biblical errancy. The written word of God does not cease being God's word on account of human errors. What is in error is not God's word, the error that is.

                      So claims of Biblical errancy without exception, can be shown to be issues of interpretation, translation, and known textual variants.
                      That's pretty much what I said in Post #8
                      "Neighbor, how long has it been since you’ve had a big, thick, steaming bowl of Wolf Brand Chili?”

                      Comment


                      • #12
                        Originally posted by Adrift View Post
                        Hmm. That sounds about right. Am I the only one who has a hard time deciphering a lot of 37818's posts? I don't mean that to be mean or anything. Maybe its just me.
                        It does not hurt to ask someone, anyone what they mean by a particular phrase or word.
                        . . . the Gospel of Christ, for it is [the] power of God to salvation to every [one] believing, . . . -- Romans 1:16.

                        . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3, 4.

                        Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1.

                        Comment


                        • #13
                          Originally posted by 37818 View Post
                          It does not hurt to ask someone, anyone what they mean by a particular phrase or word.
                          But that's not what you did. Your OP simply made two statements.
                          "Neighbor, how long has it been since you’ve had a big, thick, steaming bowl of Wolf Brand Chili?”

                          Comment


                          • #14
                            Originally posted by Cow Poke View Post
                            But that's not what you did. Your OP simply made two statements.
                            Yes. I made two statements.
                            Originally posted by 37818 View Post
                            Biblical inerrancy has to do with God's word.

                            Biblical errancy has to do with interpretation, translation, and known variants in the manuscript evidence.
                            Where the two statements true or false? Or do you find the phrase "has to do with" nonsensical?
                            . . . the Gospel of Christ, for it is [the] power of God to salvation to every [one] believing, . . . -- Romans 1:16.

                            . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3, 4.

                            Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1.

                            Comment


                            • #15
                              I'm going to excuse myself, 37. Have a Merry Christmas.
                              "Neighbor, how long has it been since you’ve had a big, thick, steaming bowl of Wolf Brand Chili?”

                              Comment

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