In this brief parable, which is not followed up by an explanation from Jesus, we see a woman putting leaven in 'meal'...
Most commentaries I see them note that, even though 'leaven' is used elsewhere in the Bible, in this particular instance, Jesus is using 'leaven' in a good way, indicating that the Kingdom of Heaven will grow exponentially from small beginnings, just like bread rises when leavened (yeast is added).
I'm having a really hard time with that, since leaven is so clearly identified pretty much every where else in the Bible as having to do with sin and/or corruption, both in the OT and new.
In fact, just a few chapters before that, Jesus warns of the leaven of the Pharisees.
We were discussing this Wednesday night at church, and a couple people insisted that it MUST be good because the verse starts off with "The kingdom of heaven is like...."
The majority of the commentaries I've consulted seem to support the (I guess) standard explanation that the "exception" to leaven being, and Jesus is using it in a good sense.
I've seen a few commentaries that support what I tend to believe - that Jesus would not suddenly take a concept that is so familiar to the Jews - leaven represents sin - and suddenly make it a good thing.
I'm going to revisit this, so I'd appreciate some input.
Most commentaries I see them note that, even though 'leaven' is used elsewhere in the Bible, in this particular instance, Jesus is using 'leaven' in a good way, indicating that the Kingdom of Heaven will grow exponentially from small beginnings, just like bread rises when leavened (yeast is added).
I'm having a really hard time with that, since leaven is so clearly identified pretty much every where else in the Bible as having to do with sin and/or corruption, both in the OT and new.
In fact, just a few chapters before that, Jesus warns of the leaven of the Pharisees.
We were discussing this Wednesday night at church, and a couple people insisted that it MUST be good because the verse starts off with "The kingdom of heaven is like...."
The majority of the commentaries I've consulted seem to support the (I guess) standard explanation that the "exception" to leaven being, and Jesus is using it in a good sense.
I've seen a few commentaries that support what I tend to believe - that Jesus would not suddenly take a concept that is so familiar to the Jews - leaven represents sin - and suddenly make it a good thing.
I'm going to revisit this, so I'd appreciate some input.
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