I've been lead to believe that one is immorality between two unmarried, the other is cheating on one's spouse. Also, wondering what specific form of sexual immorality is used when Jesus is preaching the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5), as I've heard it argued from a close friend that Jesus isn't giving an exception here to divorce on grounds of immorality, but rather, just giving grounds to break off an engagement based off of infidelity (referencing Jewish custom at the time of engagement being just as binding as marriage).
Thanks for the help in advance.
Thanks for the help in advance.
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