Gal 2:15-17 Greek behind we Jews

[John Reece]

From F. F. Bruce, Commentary on Galatians (NIGTC: Eerdmans, 1982):

Ἡμεῖς φύσει Ἰουδαῖοι καὶ οὐκ ἐξ ἐθνῶν ἁμαρτωλοί, 'we (who are) Jews by birth and not "sinners and Gentiles" ': these words form the subject of the sentence which is continued in verse 16 and are caught up again in καὶ ἡμεῖς (verse 16). 'We' is emphatic―'we' as distinct from 'them' (the Gentiles). The status of believers (like Paul, Peter, and Barnabas) is different now from what it was when they lived under the law. At that time the law constituted a barrier between them and the Gentiles. They themselves were 'righteous' being within the covenant; the Gentiles, being outside the covenant, were ἄνομοι (Rom. 2:12-16; 1 Cor. 9:21) and ipso facto ἁμαρτωλοί (compare Luke 24:7 with Acts 2:23)―a judgment which was confirmed in Jewish eyes by the general level of pagan morality .... But now that Paul, Peter, Barnabas and other 'Jews by birth' have embraced the way of faith in Christ, the barrier is down and there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile either in respect of sin (Rom. 3:22) or in respect of access to God's justifying grace (Rom. 10:12).

[tabibito]

I tend to agree - Paul's direct discourse with Peter is detailed. Nothing suggests a wider intent in the passage, though wider application to Jewish Christians is a natural corollary. ...


ETA
Scratch that - the Koine Greek doesn't have "we who are Jews" - it has "we Jews" ................ the commentaries are correct.

[mikewhitney]

The commentaries by Betz, Das, Lightfoot and Burton speak of the use of 'we' as representing Jewish Christians as a whole group. Nothing i have read even considers a notable difference from envisioning Paul's discussion as only including Paul and Cephas. Is there anything in the Greek to say that the first person plural should indicate anything more than Paul and Cephas?

I am proposing that the 'we' only described Paul and Cephas.