Announcement

Collapse

Biblical Languages 301 Guidelines

This is where we come to delve into the biblical text. Theology is not our foremost thought, but we realize it is something that will be dealt with in nearly every conversation. Feel free to use the original languages to make your point (meaning Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic). This is an exegetical discussion area, so please limit topics to purely biblical ones.

This is not the section for debates between theists and atheists. While a theistic viewpoint is not required for discussion in this area, discussion does presuppose a respect for the integrity of the Biblical text (or the willingness to accept such a presupposition for discussion purposes) and a respect for the integrity of the faith of others and a lack of an agenda to undermine the faith of others.

Forum Rules: Here
See more
See less

Gal 2:15-17 Greek behind we Jews

Collapse
X
 
  • Filter
  • Time
  • Show
Clear All
new posts

  • Gal 2:15-17 Greek behind we Jews

    The commentaries by Betz, Das, Lightfoot and Burton speak of the use of 'we' as representing Jewish Christians as a whole group. Nothing i have read even considers a notable difference from envisioning Paul's discussion as only including Paul and Cephas. Is there anything in the Greek to say that the first person plural should indicate anything more than Paul and Cephas?

    I am proposing that the 'we' only described Paul and Cephas.

  • #2
    I tend to agree - Paul's direct discourse with Peter is detailed. Nothing suggests a wider intent in the passage, though wider application to Jewish Christians is a natural corollary. ...


    ETA
    Scratch that - the Koine Greek doesn't have "we who are Jews" - it has "we Jews" ................ the commentaries are correct.
    Last edited by tabibito; 08-21-2014, 02:11 AM.
    sigpic1 Cor 15:34 εκνηψατε δικαιως και μη αμαρτανετε αγνωσιαν γαρ θεου τινες εχουσιν προς εντροπην υμιν λεγω

    Comment


    • #3
      From F. F. Bruce, Commentary on Galatians (NIGTC: Eerdmans, 1982):
      Ἡμεῖς φύσει Ἰουδαῖοι καὶ οὐκ ἐξ ἐθνῶν ἁμαρτωλοί, 'we (who are) Jews by birth and not "sinners and Gentiles" ': these words form the subject of the sentence which is continued in verse 16 and are caught up again in καὶ ἡμεῖς (verse 16). 'We' is emphatic―'we' as distinct from 'them' (the Gentiles). The status of believers (like Paul, Peter, and Barnabas) is different now from what it was when they lived under the law. At that time the law constituted a barrier between them and the Gentiles. They themselves were 'righteous' being within the covenant; the Gentiles, being outside the covenant, were ἄνομοι (Rom. 2:12-16; 1 Cor. 9:21) and ipso facto ἁμαρτωλοί (compare Luke 24:7 with Acts 2:23)―a judgment which was confirmed in Jewish eyes by the general level of pagan morality .... But now that Paul, Peter, Barnabas and other 'Jews by birth' have embraced the way of faith in Christ, the barrier is down and there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile either in respect of sin (Rom. 3:22) or in respect of access to God's justifying grace (Rom. 10:12).
      Last edited by John Reece; 08-21-2014, 09:24 AM.

      Comment

      Related Threads

      Collapse

      Topics Statistics Last Post
      Started by DesertBerean, 11-02-2020, 02:57 PM
      4 responses
      39 views
      0 likes
      Last Post DesertBerean  
      Working...
      X