I just did a quick run-through of all four Gospels. I do not see any meaningful distinction between "having" ("echo") a demon and being "demon-possessed" / "possessed by a demon" ("daimonizomai," which can transliterate to "demonize").
Further, I only find one place where "oppressed" is used (Acts 10:38), and that is in regard to "the devil" ("diabolos"), not a "demon" (daimonion). The context suggests the greater conflict between Jesus and the ruler of demons, as opposed to the liberation of individual persons afflicted by one or several individual demons.
So is there really any Biblical justification for the hair-splitting about "possessed," "obsessed," "oppressed" in so-called "deliverance" settings?
Further, I only find one place where "oppressed" is used (Acts 10:38), and that is in regard to "the devil" ("diabolos"), not a "demon" (daimonion). The context suggests the greater conflict between Jesus and the ruler of demons, as opposed to the liberation of individual persons afflicted by one or several individual demons.
So is there really any Biblical justification for the hair-splitting about "possessed," "obsessed," "oppressed" in so-called "deliverance" settings?
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