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Repentance from dead works in Hebrews 6:1

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  • #16
    Well that is odd. I guess I was thinking of passages like James 2, where "works" is used by itself, and where it is assumed to be referring to good works rather than bad.

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    • #17
      Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
      This passage could just as easily be teaching that the sacrifice of goats is a dead work, and that Christ's blood eliminates the need to perform any more sacrifices.
      It is certainly possible, but that does not an argument make.

      Notice the word "serve." They need to get past the "dead works" of Judaism, to get into the real service of God.
      So the Jews couldn't "really" serve God?

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      • #18
        The false hope in works as opposed to God's gospel of grace.
        . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

        . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

        Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

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        • #19
          Originally posted by KingsGambit View Post
          Does the concept of repentance from dead works as mentioned as an elementary part of the faith in Hebrews 6:1 refer to a general repentance from sin, or ... does it mean something else beyond this?
          Marvin R. Vincent, D.D., explained:
          Not sinful works in the ordinary sense of the term, but works without the element of life which comes through faith in the living God. There is a sharp opposition, therefore, between dead works and faith. They are contraries. This truth must be one of the very first things expounded to a Jew [not a Gentile] embracing Christianity. (Word Studies)
          Also:
          “Dead works” are such as cause defilement, and require purification (Heb. 9:14) because they are sinful (Gal. 5:19-21), and because their wages is death (Rom. 6:23); but “the works of the Law,” as having no life in them ..., may be included under the epithet. (F. W. Farrar in Cambridge Greek Testament for Schools and Colleges, Vol. 16)
          Moreover:
          What is meant by “dead works” (apo nekron ergon) is not clear (Heb. 9:14), though the reference may be to [e.g.,] touching a corpse (Num. 19:1; 31:19). (Robertson, Word Pictures in the NT)
          Last edited by Pat Ferguson; 04-04-2014, 03:43 PM. Reason: retype quote.

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          • #20
            Originally posted by Paprika
            So the Jews couldn't "really" serve God?
            Not by killing animals. Not after the death of the real lamb of God.

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            • #21
              Originally posted by Pat Ferguson View Post
              Moreover:
              ["dead works" may include touching corpses] I doubt that!
              The greater number of laws . . . , the more thieves . . . there will be. ---- Lao-Tzu

              [T]he truth I’m after and the truth never harmed anyone. What harms us is to persist in self-deceit and ignorance -— Marcus Aurelius, Meditations

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              • #22
                Originally posted by Truthseeker View Post
                ["dead works" may include touching corpses] I doubt that!
                Yes, that doesn't seem at all to fit the context of that clause of Hebrews. As Robertson is a serious scholar, I will give him the benefit of the doubt and seek a rational explanation for that cite. I have to wonder if what he meant was defilement in general, such as what might result from touching a dead corpse.
                "I am not angered that the Moral Majority boys campaign against abortion. I am angry when the same men who say, "Save OUR children" bellow "Build more and bigger bombers." That's right! Blast the children in other nations into eternity, or limbless misery as they lay crippled from "OUR" bombers! This does not jell." - Leonard Ravenhill

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                • #23
                  Originally posted by Pat Ferguson View Post
                  “Dead works” are such as cause defilement, and require purification (Heb. 9:14) because they are sinful (Gal. 5:19-21), and because their wages is death (Rom. 6:23); but “the works of the Law,” as having no life in them ..., may be included under the epithet. (F. W. Farrar in Cambridge Greek Testament for Schools and Colleges, Vol. 16)
                  The works of the law have no life in them, but do they defile and require purification? Before Jesus came, the sacrificial and some other rituals were the ones that purify.

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                  • #24
                    It should be noted that 'works of the law' was not any sort of requirement to be found in the Old Testament. The idea of doing 'works of the law' appears to have been a concept of Judaism formed in the centuries prior to Christ. A good way to look at the idea of 'works of the law' is to elaborate on the words. So we could speak more clearly of 'works of the law', as 'discreet discernible actions done in connection with the Jewish laws.' And the explanation would be expanded with the idea that such actions established one's righteousness with God. (We could start with a loose meaning of 'establish' as meaning 'confirm' )

                    In a sense then, the 'works' were something distinct from obedience to the Law of Moses. Instead, the emphasis was on doing certain actions. In many respects, this was superfluous with respect to the Law of Moses which, in most respects, just involved anti-works -- the avoidance of certain actions. Don't murder. Don't steal. Don't eat unclean animals. There were no 'credits' given for the number of times someone avoided murdering another person or the number of times they avoided eating unclean animals.

                    So there was a perversion of the law of Moses so as to shift priorities from obedience to God into the seeking of 'actions' to demonstrate their righteousness. Then such actions also included additional laws (and interpretations) which put a focus on doing more rules -- the focus then became a focus on these laws and rules rather than on God.

                    By the time we reach Heb 9:14, it seems that the Jewish believers were focused on the rule-based lifestyle -- probably more through their return to emphasis on the animal sacrifices, even as their primary source of a 'pure conscience.' However, the OT system was already coming to its completion and the reason for the Jewish believers' adherence was apparently out of weariness of the continuing persecutions.

                    I think the OT animal sacrificial system was fine for the earlier years of the covenant but had been inadequate both for the 1st century degeneration-level of Judaism and because the greater sacrifice of Jesus had been done.

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