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Impending Minimum Wage hike causing restaurants to close
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Originally posted by Sparko View PostWell now that the wage increase (at least the partial increase to $11/hour) has taken place in Seattle, I did some checking to see what the effects have been:
http://www.foxnews.com/politics/2015...sands-workers/
Eating meals out in Seattle just got more expensive as tens of thousands of low wage workers got a raise this week to $11 an hour. It was the first scheduled pay increase on the way to $15 an hour, the highest minimum wage in the country.
Ivar’s Salmon House, an iconic Seattle seafood restaurant, decided to skip the phase-in period and began paying $15 right away.
It also raised menu prices 21 percent. The famous Fish ‘n Chips will run you $20.60 and the Wild Alaska Halibut is now $43.50. The restaurant also wrote on the menu, "Tipping is no longer necessary…we have changed the way we pay our employees."
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Now I guess, what remains to be seen is whether or not patronage drops proportionally to the hike(s). I didn't see that listed in those two reports...
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Well now that the wage increase (at least the partial increase to $11/hour) has taken place in Seattle, I did some checking to see what the effects have been:
http://www.foxnews.com/politics/2015...sands-workers/
Eating meals out in Seattle just got more expensive as tens of thousands of low wage workers got a raise this week to $11 an hour. It was the first scheduled pay increase on the way to $15 an hour, the highest minimum wage in the country.
Ivar’s Salmon House, an iconic Seattle seafood restaurant, decided to skip the phase-in period and began paying $15 right away.
It also raised menu prices 21 percent. The famous Fish ‘n Chips will run you $20.60 and the Wild Alaska Halibut is now $43.50. The restaurant also wrote on the menu, "Tipping is no longer necessary…we have changed the way we pay our employees."
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Originally posted by Starlight View PostI have an extremely strong objective moral framework.
Which as an atheist is not clouded by complicating factors like trying to work out how to interpret difficult parts of the Bible and try to apply them to issues they're not directly talking about.
We discussed it recently in this 28 page thread in Apologetics.
There is no good reason to take from someone and give to someone else who didn't earn it.
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Originally posted by Starlight View PostWhat this causes over time is the development of an upper class / aristocracy, where some people are born into extremely wealthy families. Over time* this group exerts greater and greater political influence, until the country essentially becomes run by them for them.
America has not historically had much of a class-based system, although most people are now familiar with trust fund kids. But Europe historically had an aristocracy, and they decided it was rather bad, and they're generally not very keen to see it return.
* not very much time, as the US has already become an oligarchy.
It's about trying to make sure everyone has a good opportunity in life. The children of rich parents will likely already have everything they need to do well, but the children of poor parents not so much. Your comment wrongly implies that I am advocating that the poor child ends up with more money than the rich child. Children who grow up with wealthy parents will benefit from that in quite a large number of ways during their life, quite apart from whether they ever get to inherit the entirety of their parents' fortunes.
I stand to gain quite a decent inheritance when my parents die, just like my mother did when her parents died. If I wanted money for nothing I would be supporting the inheritance of fortunes. But I don't think that sort of thing serves our societies particularly well. Why give so much money to people who did nothing to earn it beyond being born, when there are people in our societies who could really benefit from that money to get a fair start in life and who would be able to contribute much more to our societies as a result of some financial assistance?
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Originally posted by Joel View PostI don't know much of anything about NZ. I tried googling and found this interesting:
http://www.whaleoil.co.nz/2014/09/po...ut-basis-fact/
The actual monopolies in the world tend to be government created and enforced, which is not free-market.
My own preferred solution for handling industries that suffer from monopolistic problems is for the government to own a company competing in the industry, which is itself run as a private company and is no different to any other company other than that the government is the majority shareholder. As the majority shareholder the government can direct the board/CEO to be as price-competitive as possible, and to not engage in non-competitive practices, and therefore the company can set a base level for competitiveness within the industry. Any profit the company makes goes to the government and so less taxes are needed to fund government expenditure, and competition within the marketplace is ensured. This creates jobs, ensures competitiveness, and lowers taxes, and I think the government should own these sort of companies within each major industry that might otherwise be subject to monopolistic problems.
Extreme libertarians agree that there needs to be enforcement to stop theft and fraud. Call that government if you like.
State redistribution involves taking property from some people. There is no non-neutral (not effecting people's behavior in the market) way to do that.
(Not to mention that the very intent of redistribution is to effect a change in the market.)
If you hated the low-skilled and wanted to price them out of the market (and create unemployment), a legal minimum wage would be a good way to achieve that end.
I'm curious: In your idealistic libertarian utopia, how do these people who are earning much lower than the current minimum wage survive? Let's say that working 80 hours a week they have enough money for food and possibly a roof over their heads. How do they pay for healthcare? What happens if they get sick and can't work any more?
Libertarianism seems great for the winners, but seems pretty much like hell-on-earth for those born into poor families, or with not a particular great intellect, or for those with ongoing health problems. Do they just die off and then society thrives via survival of the fittest?
I also wanted to respond to something you said earlier:
In the long run, the tendency is for market wages to equal the marginal revenue
...
The point where marginal cost equals marginal revenue is the profit-maximizing point.
If marginal revenue is less than marginal cost, that means that reducing the workforce will cut costs by more than the decrease in revenue. So a profit-seeking businessman will want to downsize as long as marginal revenue is less than marginal cost.
On the other hand if marginal revenue is more than marginal cost, that means that hiring additional labor services will increase revenue by more than the increase in costs. So, again, a profit-seeking businessman will want to expand production as long as marginal revenue is less than marginal cost.
Either way, this drives marginal revenue and marginal cost towards being equal.
Firstly, that logic suggests that the marginal revenue and marginal cost curves cross one another in the vicinity of the final employee. So maybe the final person employed, plus or minus one person, will cost the employer close to the marginal revenue (as it happens, this is not actually the case, as I'll argue below). So this says nothing about the relationship of the other employees to their productivity – it says nothing at all about how close or not close the marginal revenue and marginal cost curves are to each other in other sections of the curves.
Secondly, it's also worth understanding the usual shape these curves tend to have and why it is that they cross. Let's say you've got a pretty standard minimum-wage type business where the employees are churning out burgers, or ice-cream, or clothing, or cheese, or beer, or some other relatively mass-produced item being created by relatively unskilled workers. The marginal cost curve plotted against number of workers tends to be nearly always very very close to flat but slightly decreasing, for the following reasons. Once the factory / restaurant has been paid for and the production facilities set up and ready to go and the initial workers are employed, then adding additional workers tends to cost pretty much the same for each additional worker hired – ie the minimum wage plus whatever overheads happen to be involved. There are also additional costs for the raw materials that the additional workers will need to use. These additional costs plus the overheads are pretty much constant with each additional worker, although they will be subject a little bit to economies of scale. Thus the marginal cost curve is almost flat but a little decreasing due to economies of scale. That curve is not overly exciting. (Although it is worth noting that a lot of people get this curve factually wrong by showing pictures of this curve increasing. But many empirical studies have found that there are almost no businesses in the entire world that operate on an area of this curve where marginal cost is increasing. This is why the term is called “economies of scale” and not “diseconomies of scale” since those are generally not a thing. In many businesses involving digital content the marginal cost can even be pretty much zero – eg the cost of selling an additional piece of pre-made software or an additional instance of an audiobook can have an essentially zero cost for the vendor.)
The interesting curve, which has an unexpected shape for the uninitiated, is the marginal revenue curve. Now each additional minimum wage worker on the production line, much like the one before him, can churn out X number of whatever-he's-making in a year and they'll each be sold for some price $Y based on whatever the owner has decided to market his product for. So the marginal revenue curve is flat, absolutely flat. And it's sitting somewhere above the marginal cost curve (otherwise the business owner really needs to rethink his pricing structure because he's going bankrupt fast). And then, at some point on the graph, the marginal revenue curve has a discontinuity – it drops to zero instantaneously due to demand for the product being exhausted. So if the plant is manufacturing pens, and selling them at $1 each, and there is annual demand for 1,000,000 pens at that price... then each additional worker brings in marginal revenue of $1 for each pen created, until at the first pen beyond the millionth the marginal revenue drops to $0.00 because those pens won't sell. (Again, a lot of people make a mistake in drawing this curve and simply draw it as a flat line. But that leaves out the crucial bit of it – that it suddenly drops instantaneously to zero, since whatever price the manufacturer chooses to sell their item at, they will only ever sell a finite number of items and any additional items they create will not sell. Thus, the limiting factor for almost all businesses, and the point where the marginal revenue curve suddenly zeroes and thereby crosses the marginal cost curve, is the point where supply exceeds the demand at the given price-point.)
This is where virtually all businesses operate within the MR-MC space: At the point where they are making exactly as much of their product as there is demand for. They won't employ more employees simply to make a giant pile of unsold burgers or unsold pens, but as long as there is more demand for more of their product they are happy to continue employing people to meet that demand because the profit with every additional product sold. I have never ever yet encountered a business that would not be happy to make and sell additional instances of their products at the price they are currently charging – no one ever turns down more business! And no one is ever unhappy to sell more items at the current price - in fact they will often give you a discount if you want to buy in bulk. This is because everyone has flat or decreasing marginal costs and their limiting factor is demand. Here is my high-quality artistic rendering of what the MR-MC curve looks like:
MCMR.png
There is nearly no business whose MR-MC curve doesn't look like that. Some really important take-aways:
1. Demand is always the limiting factor. You can always scale up your business, employ more workers etc, in order to meet demand, but finite demand will always be ultimately what limits your business growth. At any given price point, whatever you choose it to be, customers only want a finite amount of your item. Manufacturing more than that finite amount is pointless. (This is why what is called 'demand-side economics' is so important, compared to what is called 'supply-side economics' which has no merit: Increasing supply has zero value, whereas increasing or decreasing demand in any economy is what controls the growth of business because every business owner will start hiring more workers to produce more of their goods if they have reason to believe they can sell more goods.) This is why advertising is so important to businesses – because ramping up demand for your product is absolutely crucial. (When MR-MC curves are drawn wrongly with increasing MC curves, then it becomes obvious that businesses would not want to advertise because they don't want to sell any more of their products because they're too expensive to make... since this situation never happens, it's rather obvious that such MC curves are wrongly drawn)
2. The Marginal Revenue and Marginal Cost curves do not slowly curve together and meet at some equilibrium point. They are in fact curving slightly away from each other, and then they cross suddenly and instantaneously, as there is a point of discontinuity in the Marginal Revenue curve at the point where demand is exceeded. What this means is that there is never an area on the curves where the two are edging closer and closer together that could be seen as a “true indicator” of what the wages of the employees “should be”. Your idea that the wages of employees should be indicated by where the MR tends toward MC is simply impossible because the MR and MC don't tend towards each other. As a result, nothing about this curve implies that employees will be paid the wages they deserve for their productivity “in the long run”. There is no implied constraint that employees get paid anything remotely close to the value of the goods their labor is producing: The employer can be arbitrarily oppressive of them and pay them 1c per hour in order to keep his costs low, and by doing that he will maximize his profit. Thus the profit-seeking employer is motivated by profit to pay his workers much much less than they are worth to him.
The market mechanism that actually causes wages to rise and employees to be paid what they are worth is only present when there is full employment. When there are zero remaining unemployed people available for exploitation yet there still remains demand for additional products, then the employers who would then like to employ more workers then have to compete with other employers for the employees. Each employer then has to offer employees a better deal than other employers in order to keep those employees. This causes wages to rise, as employers compete to offer the better deals. Obviously the best deal that any employer can offer is limited by the MR curve – the employer cannot pay his workers any higher than the amount of revenue that the employees are bringing in (otherwise he'd go bankrupt). So eventually after a long period of full employment, the wages of employees will go up towards their productivity – ie the entire MC curve will rise towards MR as long as there continues to be full employment.
But we currently don't have full employment, and haven't had it for a long while – not since the 80s in the US I believe. This has intrigued a lot of commentators because there's no well-accepted theory as to why not. But the result has been that wages haven't risen since the 80s either, even though productivity has risen. So economic commentators have been waiting for a period of full employment to cause wages to shoot up to match productivity, yet this simply hasn't occurred. And several commentators I've heard talk about the economic recovery from the 2008 crisis have noted that, despite the fact that the stock market has now completed its recovery, wages haven't risen - and they expressed hope that as unemployment continues to decrease eventually that will cause a spike in wages. There's been some hopeful speculation in recent months that the US economy might now be reaching full employment... I guess we shall see.
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Originally posted by Starlight View PostA significant problem with this is that a lot of countries that were doing really well subsequently decided that it sounded like a great idea to switch to extreme free-market policies. A lot of the Western world made significant changes to the way their economies in the 80s, 90s, or 00s to switch over to extreme free-market ideas that quite a lot of economists had begun to think sounded like great ideas.
As far as I know most Western countries have been growing farther from free-market, often at an exponentially increasing rates, over the past 100 years or so. That's the case for the U.S.
Anyway, these indices do have historical data. I see that Fraser's shows the changes you mention, with
deregulated economies tend to cause cycles of booms and busts
Overall, as far as I can judge, NZ has done a lot worse economically since the changes in the 80s/90s.
http://www.whaleoil.co.nz/2014/09/po...ut-basis-fact/
Median household income in NZ has been rising since about 1994 (was falling before that).
First of all, markets are artificial constructs and so require quite a bit of regulation in order to run smoothly.
People are greedy and so keep trying to find ways to sabotage markets for their own interests. They will try to form monopolies to force others out of business.
The actual monopolies in the world tend to be government created and enforced, which is not free-market.
So in order to run a market that runs smoothly and freely and doesn't get constantly sabotaged by the players, the government needs to be actively keeping it running smoothly, providing rules for businesses transactions and policing them. Setting up the rules and framework is essential for the market itself to be free and to function properly. You can't have a free market without government, which is one reason why extreme libertarianism is utter nonsense.
Redistribution of wealth is something that happens outside a market framework. Here's an analogy. Imagine that the market is a casino room for players to game against each other (say, at poker), with the government owning the casino. Players are given their chips, and go into the room and play their poker and other games against each other as much as they wish (policed by the casino to ensure no cheating). They return and bank their chips. The next day they come in, take their chips, and proceed into the gaming room. Let's say the casino has the policy of always giving out at least a few chips to the people who have nothing in their account. So if a player loses all their money or has none to begin with, the casino says "bad luck, but here's a few chips to get started with, because the gaming is better if everyone's playing". To fund this, they charge everyone a fee of a single chip at the end of each day for playing. My point is that redistributive process occurs largely independently of the free market system: The redistribution is occurring when players bank and subsequently receive their chips, whereas the free market is occurring in the gaming room when they play one another. The casino tampering with the rules of the game is not necessarily required in order to have redistributive processes also operating.
The operation of redistributive processes can therefore coexist with a free market, without inherently impinging on the freedom of the market mechanisms.
And it is typically done by taxing market exchanges (e.g. the sale of labor services, the purchase of goods). The state thus is a third party, forcibly intervening in market exchanges. So it is difficult to consider it as being outside the market.
(Not to mention that the very intent of redistribution is to effect a change in the market.)
Personally I tend to define the free market as being voluntary exchanges in the absence of violation of property rights. Thus you can't have free markets if peoples' property is unsafe. With the job of good government to be to protect everyone and their property. If the entity charged with protecting peoples' property ends up instead being the one confiscating their property, then I'd see that as anti-free-market, just as I would view any theft as being anti-free-market.
Of course, there may well be some socially sub-optimal consequences of a totally free market, and it therefore may well be desirable to build rules into how the market can operate in order to make it more socially reasonable (the existence of a minimum wage being one such rule).
But that doesn't seem socially reasonable.
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Originally posted by Starlight View Postlilpixieofterror,
Over the 80 years in Western society there hasn't been a very big problem with inherited wealth because:
1) People have typically had more than one child, and so at every generation the wealth is split between multiple people, quickly diminishing it.
2) It has been subjected to significant inheritance taxes by the government.
Even in Australia, where there has been no estate tax, families lose their financial wealth and the values that accumulated the wealth by the third generation.
http://www.wealthcounsel.com/free-re...rd-generation/
Oops... how embarrassing how those pesky fact things, keep getting in the way, huh?
As a result, yes, we have seen that most fortunes typically disappear by the third generation. Unfortunately the combination of people having fewer children on average, and the removal of inheritance taxes, means this will no longer be the case in the future. So saying it's worked fine for us up until now is not relevant, and it in fact did not at all work fine prior to the world wars when there was a very powerful aristocracy in Europe who had immense inherited wealth. And while it is true that a number of them had lost it all due to gambling, the majority of them had not.
That is not the case if the fortune is large enough for people to live off the interest/dividends generated by it, as is now generally the case with the very wealthy. People with sufficiently large fortunes need never work at all.
I recall about half of the current rich list are inheritance vs self-made. That percentage is going down over time.
Bill Gates - Self made
Warren Buffet - Self made
Larry Ellison - Self made
Koch Brothers (tired at #4) - Inherited, but only on the second generation
So 3/5ths of the US top are self made, with the other two building further upon the wealth they inherited. Will their wealth continue into the 3rd generation and will their company stay family owned? Hard to say, but history shows it will not last forever.
Yet though, the ultra rich are only a small part of the rich class in general. If we go into those who are millionaires, 60% will end up broke by the second generation and 90% will end up broke by the 3rd generation. You can say, "But that is because it is split further and further!" which I'm sure plays a part, but a decent investment plan and the will to work to build upon what you have could turn even a moderate fortune, into a bigger fortune and keep it going. Problem is... the skills required to do this don't tend to go much beyond the 2nd generation.
Are you therefore in favor of helping these people by relieving them of some of their burdensome wealth?
Well it's only their "own money" in the sense that society and the government has set up a social and economic system within which everyone participates and the government prints money and then says it has value and everyone agrees to that and various rules are followed about how the whole system works, and finally we say that if someone ends up with some money as a result of this system then it's "their own money". What I'm getting at is that the entire notion of people having "their own money" is a social construct and is the end product of how society has chosen to operate just as much as its an end product of anything the person themselves did to get that money (eg found it on the ground, worked for it, inherited it, earned it as interest on money in the bank, won it betting on a horse etc). So society quite reasonably can say what people can and can't do with 'their own money' because society had quite a large say in how that person got that money in the first place, and in fact is the one saying that it is 'money'.
The notion that some people seem to have that any money that happens to fall into their hands at any point in time is absolutely "theirs" by some sort of divine right, and that they are totally justified in keeping it or doing with it as they please, and that they owe nothing at all to society as a whole, and that anyone who tried to take away any of their money would be totally and utterly wrong to do so... I find to be utterly bizarre. It's a kind of extremely self-entitled greed. If anyone objects to society taking some of that money back to fund all the roads, courts, police, hospitals, schools, and social things that helped this person gain that money in the first place, then as far as I'm concerned that person is unspeakably selfish and ungrateful and is welcome to move to Russia and never come back.
The people of most Western democracies largely trust their governments. The US is a massive exception because your government is ridiculously corrupt, plus most of your Republican party is currently trying to sabotage the functions of your government to 'prove' that government doesn't work. When government is actually by the people and for the people it tends to run pretty efficiently and people tend to trust it because they see it actually working for them. So currently, in the US public distrust of your government is around 75% while here in NZ it's 14%.
Obviously they are. Previously they had no assistance, now they have assistance.
Food = better than no food
Healthcare = better than no healthcare
House = better than no house
See, I've traveled around the world and I do know, for a fact, that your precious 'non-western countries' have all of these things going on too. If your claims were true... shouldn't Europe be better off in all measurements, yet is it?
I'm kinda lost for words at this point...
I'm trying to figure out whether your a troll, a moron, or whether you just like seeing people suffer.
I'm baffled by the truly absurd and ridiculous and non-factual assertion that people receiving government welfare in general never get off government assistance.
I agree that sometimes that is the case - eg if they are too-old or too-sick to ever support themselves again. And the alternative - letting them die - certainly gets them off government assistance, but doesn't seem like a particular great solution.
My 'dreams of utopia' as you put it, have been true in my own country's fairly recent history. I would like to see other countries learn from out example, and would like to see us walk-back some of the recent right-wing swings to our economy that were ill-conceived and which have been damaging.
I think you are getting confused because communists and myself see the same sort of things (huge wealth inequalities, the presence of severe poverty) as a problem and both want to act to address them. We have different solutions however to those problems. Communism proposes abolishing the free market economy and have the government directly control all business and all prices. Whereas I live in one of the freest capitalist market economies in the world and don't propose to abolish it and don't propose to have the government in direct control of all businesses and prices. Plus, historically communism has been associated with dictatorships, and I live in a democracy which I don't want to see change.Last edited by lilpixieofterror; 04-07-2015, 08:59 PM.
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Originally posted by lilpixieofterror View PostYou know what is frustrating about arguing with you? You make claims not to be a communist, yet most of your beliefs and arguments come straight from the communist handbook,
The non-American democratic West in the 1950s and 1960s was not communist. Can you get that through your head? France, Denmark, Sweden, Norway, New Zealand, Australia, Canada, the UK etc are not communist and have never been communist. Within the last century or so, they've all been democracies, they've not had dictatorships, and they've never been communist. But at various times they've had strong redistributive economic policies, and depending on your definition of the term, you might want to label them 'socialist' or give them that label at certain periods of their history.
So your argument seems to go "well we can't have the policies that worked in those countries because communism didn't work!" which is just stupid. Yes, communism didn't work. I agree. But what did work, and worked very well, was the redistributive economic policies that a wide variety of successful Western countries have tried.
See, the problem with your entire plan is your absolute trust in the government to make it work,
if your plan was so great and wonderful, Europe should be thriving and doing much better than the US, yet the reality shows that Europe doesn't seem to be doing better then the US is.
It also depends on what you mean by "thriving and doing much better than the US". The HDI report you cite makes a little bit of an effort to combine various factors but not a great one, and seems to overly favor GDP. Because, yes, I think that on an overall balance of factors, much of Europe is doing much better than the US and I would much rather live there than in the US.
If your plan was true and accurate, shouldn't most Western European nations be ahead of the US and not at or even behind the US?
The countries that consistently score the best on these multi-factor analyses are the Scandinavian countries, France, Switzerland, the Netherlands, the UK, Ireland, Australia, NZ and Canada. And the US is typically somewhere on the tail-end of this list or off the bottom of it - often quite far off it. You can often almost split the first-world countries into two groups on a lot of these lists, with the US typically being in the 2nd tier of first-world countries, while the historically socialist democracies are all the ones in the first tier. That is how I tend to mentally think of the US - as a second-tier first-world country.
The things these top countries have in common are:
1. Modern western democracies.
2. Free market capitalism.
3. Very low corruption.
4. Strong government services.
5. A history of strongly redistributive government economic policies.
I concede a legitimate discussion can be had over which of these things are more important factors than others. And I also concede that the fact that a lot of these countries have significantly changed the structure of their economies within the last 30 years and significantly altered the strengths of their redistributive policies can make it hard to disentangle whether their current good performance is a after-effect of good historical policies that gave them a fundamentally sound and well-structured society, or whether it stems from very recent policies.
So in 100 years, has the 'non-American democratic west' done any better than the US has?
Let's try dumping a few million immigrants on top of your Scandinavian friends and see how well they handle it
Your precious 'non-American West' was saved by the US and rebuilt after a destructive war ended up destroying much of it
I agree the post-war rebuild was a really good idea and really successful. It's good to finally reach agreement that large government programs to build up economies and infrastructure are a great idea.
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lilpixieofterror,
Over the 80 years in Western society there hasn't been a very big problem with inherited wealth because:
1) People have typically had more than one child, and so at every generation the wealth is split between multiple people, quickly diminishing it.
2) It has been subjected to significant inheritance taxes by the government.
As a result, yes, we have seen that most fortunes typically disappear by the third generation. Unfortunately the combination of people having fewer children on average, and the removal of inheritance taxes, means this will no longer be the case in the future. So saying it's worked fine for us up until now is not relevant, and it in fact did not at all work fine prior to the world wars when there was a very powerful aristocracy in Europe who had immense inherited wealth. And while it is true that a number of them had lost it all due to gambling, the majority of them had not.
A fortune only last for so long without anybody around to build it up,
so the reality is there's very few of the 'old money' type families that actually exist. Just look at the current rich list and their biographies for proof of that.
Wealth brings its own problems
It creates lots of problems, but it isn't your place to tell people what they can and can't do with their own money.
The notion that some people seem to have that any money that happens to fall into their hands at any point in time is absolutely "theirs" by some sort of divine right, and that they are totally justified in keeping it or doing with it as they please, and that they owe nothing at all to society as a whole, and that anyone who tried to take away any of their money would be totally and utterly wrong to do so... I find to be utterly bizarre. It's a kind of extremely self-entitled greed. If anyone objects to society taking some of that money back to fund all the roads, courts, police, hospitals, schools, and social things that helped this person gain that money in the first place, then as far as I'm concerned that person is unspeakably selfish and ungrateful and is welcome to move to Russia and never come back.
I also enjoy your absolute trust in the government and the government's ability to absolutely run your dreams of utopia, without it turning into a nightmare. Can you show me where governments have had a history of running your dreams of utopia without spending globs of money, with little to show for it?
Right now, the US has over 50 million people living on government assistance. Are they objectively any better off today than they were before?
Food = better than no food
Healthcare = better than no healthcare
House = better than no house
Of course they are not
I'm trying to figure out whether your a troll, a moron, or whether you just like seeing people suffer.
this requires yet more money to be taken, to be spent on yet more people, to not produce any result of people ever getting off government assistance.
I agree that sometimes that is the case - eg if they are too-old or too-sick to ever support themselves again. And the alternative - letting them die - certainly gets them off government assistance, but doesn't seem like a particular great solution.
How much money will have to be taken, for your dreams of utopia to ever come true
You claim you are not a communist and yet all of your arguments come straight from the communist handbook.Last edited by Starlight; 04-07-2015, 07:57 PM.
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Originally posted by Starlight View PostHmm... it seems a few pages have happened here during my Easter holiday. So, addressing the general discussion...
I find it frustrating when trying to dialogue with right-wing Americans that your perception of politics is:
Communist Dictatorships versus America.
And under those categories, you place the USSR and China on the one side and America on the other, and say the first two didn't do very great, and America has done better. And as far as that level of hand-waving type analysis goes, I agree with you.
But, a rather important thing, is that you seem to like to leave out the rest of the Western world from such an analysis. And, funnily enough, when I see you leaving out my own country from your analysis, not to mention all of the European countries that seem to be doing really really well, I tend to think your spectrum is incomplete. In fact the spectrum looks something like:
Communist dictatorships <-----------> All the many and various European countries and the rest of the non-American democratic Western world for their entire histories, drifting left and right over various parts of this spectrum <-------------> The extremely right-wing position of America
I don't personally find 'socialism' a particularly useful label, so don't tend to bother to apply it to myself or anyone else. But if, in the US, you guys want to apply it to the "left-wing" of your political spectrum (and I use that term loosely, since the US is so far to the right of nearly everyone else that your left wing often seems to be to the right of our right-wing) and anybody further left than that (ie basically everyone), then fine, everybody else can be 'socialist' according to you. Or not, as you wish - lilpixieofterror seems to alternate between insisting I'm a total socialist and asserting that I'm not at all a socialist and that what I'm advocating is 'democratic socialism' which is apparently totally different. Again, I don't particularly care what it is or isn't labelled.
My general view is that:
1. The sane part of the political spectrum lies in that huuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuge middle-region that all of the non-American democratic West has occupied for the last 100 years.
2. Within that area of the political spectrum, I tend to personally favor quite left-wing views and stronger re-distributive policies of the sorts followed by many Western nations in the 1950s and which are most well-represented today in the Scandinavian countries. Because it seems to me that those policies and the countries that have them have proven to be the most successful. I tend to think that a lot of Western countries that have gone too far to the right since the 80s and they would be better served to swing back to the left a bit toward where they were around the 1950s and the 1960s. Again, because when I look at the empirical results, it is those countries with those policies that seem to have been the most successful.
To note the obvious: That sort of position isn't communism. I'm not advocating a communist dictatorship, so pointing to the USSR and China as examples to me is just irrelevant. Communism doesn't work. Dictatorships generally aren't great. I'm taking for granted that there should be a democracy, and should be free market capitalism: That's the basis on which the non-American West has operated for the past 100 years. The question is, within such a system, how high should taxes be, and how much redistribution should the state do, and how much control should it regulate business enterprises?
When I look at international comparisons of how different Western countries are doing in different ways, the ones topping the list are nearly always the ones that are the most 'socialist' in the sense of having some of the strongest re-distributive and regulatory policies within the Western world.
And Sparko, the points Paprika was making were highly relevant and largely what I would have said myself. You asked him a stupid question repeatedly and tried to make him defend a position he didn't hold, and predictably got no answer. Your fondness for kicking people off threads is childish.
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Originally posted by Joel View PostIt turns out that across the countries of the world, more free-market policies correlates well with how well countries do economically, including living standards of the poorest in each country.
As for your country, I don't know what your country is.
Overall, as far as I can judge, NZ has done a lot worse economically since the changes in the 80s/90s. One significant difference is that our economic performance has dropped behind that of Australia, who we were historically comparable to (and who we pay a lot of attention to because they are geographically and culturally a very similar country to us - like the US vs Canada). There is no widely agreed-upon theory as to why we have dropped relative to Australia, although the theory I find most convincing is that it's a result of deregulation in the banking sector resulting in all our banks being bought out by Australian banks, which means the substantial profit made by the banking sector now flows over to Australia which is essentially a huge money-drain on the economy. ie we've been running a yearly balance of payments deficit, which a lot of economists claimed totally didn't matter, up until about 2007 when most economists began to suspect that it does.
I suspect your economic freedom indices conflate together a lot of things I would be strongly in favor of with a lot of things I would be strongly against. Again, let me be very clear: I have no fundamental objection to the basic notion of free market capitalism and think it provides a fundamentally sound basis for society. I am all for free markets and efficient government, etc, and I say that as someone who lives in a country with a much freer market and much more efficient government than you're familiar with in the US. But we still have more redistributive policies than you have in the US: The government provides free healthcare to all citizens, housing for anyone who needs it, and a much wider range of welfare to the poor than is typically the case in the US.
You are saying, granted that there should be free market capitalism, but the question is (given that markets are free) how unfree should markets be?
Redistribution of wealth is something that happens outside a market framework. Here's an analogy. Imagine that the market is a casino room for players to game against each other (say, at poker), with the government owning the casino. Players are given their chips, and go into the room and play their poker and other games against each other as much as they wish (policed by the casino to ensure no cheating). They return and bank their chips. The next day they come in, take their chips, and proceed into the gaming room. Let's say the casino has the policy of always giving out at least a few chips to the people who have nothing in their account. So if a player loses all their money or has none to begin with, the casino says "bad luck, but here's a few chips to get started with, because the gaming is better if everyone's playing". To fund this, they charge everyone a fee of a single chip at the end of each day for playing. My point is that redistributive process occurs largely independently of the free market system: The redistribution is occurring when players bank and subsequently receive their chips, whereas the free market is occurring in the gaming room when they play one another. The casino tampering with the rules of the game is not necessarily required in order to have redistributive processes also operating.
The operation of redistributive processes can therefore coexist with a free market, without inherently impinging on the freedom of the market mechanisms. Of course, there may well be some socially sub-optimal consequences of a totally free market, and it therefore may well be desirable to build rules into how the market can operate in order to make it more socially reasonable (the existence of a minimum wage being one such rule).
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