Originally posted by Boxing Pythagoras
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This has nothing to do with whether or not the Bible actually holds homosexuality to be sinful (for what it's worth, I believe that it does). This has to do with the logic behind demonstrating that fact. If one of my geometry students wrote on a quiz that the Pythagorean Theorem is true because a circle has a radius, his answer would be wrong regardless of the fact that the Pythagorean Theorem actually is true. Similarly, even if the Bible does say that homosexuality is sinful, that proscription is not due to the fact that the Bible refers to it as an abomination.
I have no "vendetta" against Mountain Man; and while you seem to think him incapable of doing so, I have complete faith that the gentleman can defend his own statements without need of your help.
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