Originally posted by Sam
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Abortion and Feminism split from "Look at me" thread
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Micah 6:8 He has told you, O man, what is good; and what does the LORD require of you but to do justice, and to love kindness, and to walk humbly with your God?
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As for the brain death stuff, the right answer afaic is not whether it's a person worthy of dignity but what the cost (or, more precisely, opportunity cost) is. If keeping the person alive amounts to a substantial (an ambiguous term, I know) financial burden on the family, then it might be justifiable to end care even for someone who isn't brain-deadDon't call it a comeback. It's a riposte.
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Originally posted by Spartacus View PostMight we not expect one count of murder and one count of manslaughter?
For 3 and 4, it seems that steps were taken both times to prevent the cloned tissue from becoming a fully functioning human when it otherwise could have been.
For (3) and (4), the question is why (5) is manslaughter or murder when (3) and (4) wouldn't be, if you agree with that. Jed's wrong, of course, that such problems are merely a "gimmick."
I think I know where you're going with your argument, Spart, so I'll throw in one last question for you:
6) A man and a woman meet at a bar and "become amorous." The woman, not wanting to become pregnant, uses a spermicidal contraceptive sponge. When she confesses this the next Wednesday to her (Protestant) pastor and reveals she was ovulating at the time, the pastor accuses her of negligence tantamount to a conspiracy to commit murder.
Is the pastor on the right track? Did the decision to prevent to prevent a human from forming in woman by contraceptive amount to something like a conspiracy to commit murder?"I wonder about the trees. / Why do we wish to bear / Forever the noise of these / More than another noise / So close to our dwelling place?" — Robert Frost, "The Sound of Trees"
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Originally posted by Sam View PostJed's right; it's probably a charge of manslaughter if the pregnancy was unknown to the man, murder if it was known.
For (3) and (4), the question is why (5) is manslaughter or murder when (3) and (4) wouldn't be, if you agree with that. Jed's wrong, of course, that such problems are merely a "gimmick."
I think I know where you're going with your argument, Spart, so I'll throw in one last question for you:
6) A man and a woman meet at a bar and "become amorous." The woman, not wanting to become pregnant, uses a spermicidal contraceptive sponge. When she confesses this the next Wednesday to her (Protestant) pastor and reveals she was ovulating at the time, the pastor accuses her of negligence tantamount to a conspiracy to commit murder.
Is the pastor on the right track? Did the decision to prevent to prevent a human from forming in woman by contraceptive amount to something like a conspiracy to commit murder?Don't call it a comeback. It's a riposte.
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Originally posted by Spartacus View PostThere is a difference between preventing a person's existence and deliberately creating them with the intent of reducing them to nothing more than an organ donor."I wonder about the trees. / Why do we wish to bear / Forever the noise of these / More than another noise / So close to our dwelling place?" — Robert Frost, "The Sound of Trees"
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Originally posted by Sam View PostQuite possibly but the intent isn't relevant to the question of personhood. In both cases, we're talking about active steps to prevent a potential person from fully forming, correct?
Under your logic, it seems that preventing someone from cloning a human or fertilizing eggs in vitro is tantamount to committing murder as well: you place the person who would prevent an in vitro fertilization and the person who throws the resultant embryos away (thereby ACTUALLY killing them) on more or less the same moral plane.
Contraception is wrong, but not because it's tantamount to murder. The egg is a part of the mother, the sperm a part of the father. The resultant embryo is a part of the human species: it's not part of any of us, but one of us.Don't call it a comeback. It's a riposte.
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Originally posted by Sam View Post6) A man and a woman meet at a bar and "become amorous." The woman, not wanting to become pregnant, uses a spermicidal contraceptive sponge. When she confesses this the next Wednesday to her (Protestant) pastor and reveals she was ovulating at the time, the pastor accuses her of negligence tantamount to a conspiracy to commit murder.
Is the pastor on the right track? Did the decision to prevent to prevent a human from forming in woman by contraceptive amount to something like a conspiracy to commit murder?Micah 6:8 He has told you, O man, what is good; and what does the LORD require of you but to do justice, and to love kindness, and to walk humbly with your God?
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Originally posted by Spartacus View PostPossibly? Possibly?!? There's a difference between preventing a human being from being conceived and turning them into an organ farm.
Under your logic, it seems that preventing someone from cloning a human or fertilizing eggs in vitro is tantamount to committing murder as well: you place the person who would prevent an in vitro fertilization and the person who throws the resultant embryos away (thereby ACTUALLY killing them) on more or less the same moral plane.
Contraception is wrong, but not because it's tantamount to murder. The egg is a part of the mother, the sperm a part of the father. The resultant embryo is a part of the human species: it's not part of any of us, but one of us.
So you write that there's a difference between "preventing a human being from being conceived and turning them into an organ farm." But you had written that, for (4), "steps were taken both times to prevent the cloned tissue from becoming a fully functioning human when it otherwise could have been." Is (4) — the cloned body without a brain — a person, though it is not "fully formed"? Is (5) — the four-week old embryo — a person, though it is not fully formed? Is (6) a person, in the same sense of potential?
I'm just asking about whether these examples deal with persons — I am not, at this point, asking whether moral or legal protections should be expanded to them as non-persons."I wonder about the trees. / Why do we wish to bear / Forever the noise of these / More than another noise / So close to our dwelling place?" — Robert Frost, "The Sound of Trees"
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Originally posted by Sam View PostQuite possibly but the intent isn't relevant to the question of personhood. In both cases, we're talking about active steps to prevent a potential person from fully forming, correct?Micah 6:8 He has told you, O man, what is good; and what does the LORD require of you but to do justice, and to love kindness, and to walk humbly with your God?
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Originally posted by Jedidiah View PostA sperm is no more a human being than a hair. It must join with an ovum to become a human being."I wonder about the trees. / Why do we wish to bear / Forever the noise of these / More than another noise / So close to our dwelling place?" — Robert Frost, "The Sound of Trees"
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Originally posted by Jedidiah View PostNot so. Destroying a sperm prevents a human being from coming into existence. Killing a fetus, or embryo, is killing a person. Not the same at all."I wonder about the trees. / Why do we wish to bear / Forever the noise of these / More than another noise / So close to our dwelling place?" — Robert Frost, "The Sound of Trees"
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Originally posted by Sam View PostI'm not actually arguing for anything, at the moment, much less introducing a moral logic. That's jumping pretty far ahead. Right now, we're interested in the narrow scope of defining personhood — adding intent and moral consequence is superfluous at the moment.
So you write that there's a difference between "preventing a human being from being conceived and turning them into an organ farm." But you had written that, for (4), "steps were taken both times to prevent the cloned tissue from becoming a fully functioning human when it otherwise could have been." Is (4) — the cloned body without a brain — a person, though it is not "fully formed"? Is (5) — the four-week old embryo — a person, though it is not fully formed? Is (6) a person, in the same sense of potential?
I'm just asking about whether these examples deal with persons — I am not, at this point, asking whether moral or legal protections should be expanded to them as non-persons.Don't call it a comeback. It's a riposte.
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Originally posted by Spartacus View PostPresumably, a cloned person will develop a brain unless steps are deliberately taken to prevent the brain from fully forming: you've completed a prenatal lobotomy, not an abortion."I wonder about the trees. / Why do we wish to bear / Forever the noise of these / More than another noise / So close to our dwelling place?" — Robert Frost, "The Sound of Trees"
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Originally posted by Spartacus View PostIt's worth noting that (3), on closer examination, would be just fine, if accomplished with adult stem cells."I wonder about the trees. / Why do we wish to bear / Forever the noise of these / More than another noise / So close to our dwelling place?" — Robert Frost, "The Sound of Trees"
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