Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View Post
Paul tells us nothing about his origins. Those words are put into his mouth by the author of Luke/Acts/. You of course read this text and assume every narrative details is historically veracious. I do not.
Here and here1Cor 15:34 Come to your senses as you ought and stop sinning; for I say to your shame, there are some who know not God.
.⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
Scripture before Tradition:
but that won't prevent others from
taking it upon themselves to deprive you
of the right to call yourself Christian.
⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View Post
Paul tells us nothing about his origins. Those words are put into his mouth by the author of Luke/Acts/. You of course read this text and assume every narrative details is historically veracious. I do not.
So basically even if Paul did write it in one of his letters you would still use this same argument to claim he really didn't. Got it.
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Originally posted by Sparko View PostYou weren't trying to say that the number of times it is mentioned has any significance? It was just a random factoid you popped out?
Originally posted by Sparko View PostWhatdefinition of "passion" are you using? You don't seem to know what it means.
We don't know if Paul thought sex was a sin in and of itself. He doesn’t tell us. What he does tell us is that he condemns all passion and particularly sexual passion and that he views virginity and chastity as the ideal. However, for those unable to meet those lofty requirements and who have difficulty in controlling themselves, then marriage is the preferable choice.
What we also know is that by the late second century CE, Apologists like Justin Martyr and ECFs like Clement of Alexandria were making statements that Christians only marry to beget children and that if men marry to have children they should have no sexual desire for their wives. And by the fourth century St Jerome was making it clear that he viewed marriage with utter contempt.
We also have, within the Christian Apocrypha, writings that regard sex as “the experiment of the serpent” while Revelations 14:4 makes it clear that those who have not ‘"defiled’" themselves with women but have remained virgins follow the Lamb. So this idea of sin and sex has deep roots in Christianity.
Originally posted by Sparko View PostYes there is a plain reading.
"It ain't necessarily so
The things that you're liable
To read in the Bible
It ain't necessarily so."
Sportin' Life
Porgy & Bess, DuBose Heyward, George & Ira Gershwin
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Originally posted by Sparko View Post
So basically even if Paul did write it in one of his letters you would still use this same argument to claim he really didn't. Got it.
"It ain't necessarily so
The things that you're liable
To read in the Bible
It ain't necessarily so."
Sportin' Life
Porgy & Bess, DuBose Heyward, George & Ira Gershwin
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Originally posted by CivilDiscourse View Post
You are making a point about something because it isn't mentioned. The wikipedia article mentions that this is considered a weak argument. Take it up with them.
"It ain't necessarily so
The things that you're liable
To read in the Bible
It ain't necessarily so."
Sportin' Life
Porgy & Bess, DuBose Heyward, George & Ira Gershwin
Comment
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View Post
What I wrote is correct. Paul tells nothing about his background.
However, many here consider Acts and its narrative details to be veracious and accurate. I do not.
In point of fact, I find it impossible to believe that you believe your own drivel.1Cor 15:34 Come to your senses as you ought and stop sinning; for I say to your shame, there are some who know not God.
.⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
Scripture before Tradition:
but that won't prevent others from
taking it upon themselves to deprive you
of the right to call yourself Christian.
⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
- 1 like
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View PostThe Hebrew texts have more verses dealing with dietary codes and laws than they do on homosexuality. Again, textual fact.
επιθυμία [desire] is one of the four major types of passion, along with grief, fear, and pleasure [and sometimes anger]. Desire was unnatural. The philosophical ideas of the Stoics viewed all desires and passions, including sexual desire as irrational and unnatural, and held the view that a strong minded person could, and should, eliminate sexual desire along with all the other passions. The individual who was able to eliminate all desires and for whom happiness was not dependent upon those things that others wished or strove for, would find complete freedom.
We don't know if Paul thought sex was a sin in and of itself. He doesn’t tell us. What he does tell us is that he condemns all passion and particularly sexual passion and that he views virginity and chastity as the ideal. However, for those unable to meet those lofty requirements and who have difficulty in controlling themselves, then marriage is the preferable choice.
What we also know is that by the late second century CE, Apologists like Justin Martyr and ECFs like Clement of Alexandria were making statements that Christians only marry to beget children and that if men marry to have children they should have no sexual desire for their wives. And by the fourth century St Jerome was making it clear that he viewed marriage with utter contempt.
We also have, within the Christian Apocrypha, writings that regard sex as “the experiment of the serpent” while Revelations 14:4 makes it clear that those who have not ‘"defiled’" themselves with women but have remained virgins follow the Lamb. So this idea of sin and sex has deep roots in Christianity.
No there is not. What you actually by plain reading is the translation and interpretation that you accept to be correct.
Greek isn't some esoteric language that nobody can translate correctly. Biblical Greek is one of the most studied languages ever. And the people who translate Paul's letters into English are top scholars who know what they are doing, unlike an amateur like yourself. So yes, we can trust the translations, especially when we can compare many of them and see how alike they are. And the meaning of the passages in question are clear. The only reason you have difficulty is because you are a homosexual and want to try to twist the passage into saying that what you are doing is not a sin. That's obvious. So, basically even you know that the bible condemns homosexuality as a sin, but your guilty conscience needs to find a way to absolve yourself of your guilt.
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View PostThe simple textual fact is that Paul never uses the word Ἰουδαῖος to describe himself.
This fact appears to rile some of our friends and they have now resorted to the logical fallacy of Argumentum ex silentio.
1. That all others who referred to themselves as being Jewish in new testament used the Greek word you think is necessary in every instance.
2. Any citations that there can be Pharisees who did not believe in following the Jewish law.
You can't do this by going to the anti Christian sites you appear to be using since they never give you the context of the opinions they make. You need to do your own proper study and look at some ANE biblical study sites and maybe soem christian sites . until you do your own study any time you make bone headed statements like the above you will always be schooled by those who have done the proper study.
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View Post
I initially replied to someone who alleged I contended that Paul was a Jew. I have never written any such thing and Paul never uses the word Ἰουδαῖος to describe himself. That is textual fact.
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Originally posted by rogue06 View PostThe other day you asked why this website puts up with H_A. And said partly for the amusement she provides.
Today you got to see that in action. Not too many people out there are willing to argue that Paul wasn't Jewish because he never explicitly and expressly referred to himself as a Jew. smiley dolt.gifThe first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View Post
What I wrote is correct. Paul tells nothing about his background. However, many here consider Acts and its narrative details to be veracious and accurate. I do not.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by Hypatia_Alexandria View Post
[My emphasis]
One would assume that Paul had some cognizance of his own origins.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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Originally posted by CivilDiscourse View Post
So, you are countering that argument, by claiming he never mentioned it. I.E. arguing from silence a fallacious, weak argument.The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.
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