On whether or not premarital sex is biblically permissible

[tabibito]

I haven't gone through it recently. Based on my recollection, it is not the impression one would get from the (modern English) text itself. It's his view of how the original hearers and readers would have understood the instructions, based on his understanding of the language and culture of the time. I believe he's somewhat of a specialist in rabbinical materials and Second Temple Judaism.

I would love to believe it, but there are too many "but the Greek text indicates/says/demonstrates/proves" arguments that simply don't pan out when the actual Greek texts are examined. The piece that shows women were entitled to divorce, however, does seem kosher. (accepted on advisement pending deeper investigation.)